ANCC Family Nurse Practitioner –
ANCC FNP Exam Latest Version All
Questions and Detailed Answers with
Rationale 2024| Verified A+ Grade
A nurse practitioner working in a community health clinic sees a male
patient who expresses concern about starting a homosexual
relationship with a new partner. Which of the following is the best
plan to follow during this visit? (Select all that apply.)
Contact the patient's partner to schedule HIV testing
a) Educate the patient about using barrier devices during sex
b) Prescribe daily oral PrEP
c) Draw a blood sample for a combination HIV antigen/antibody
test
d) Schedule a follow-up appointment in 1 month to review test
results and discuss options for PrEP Correct Answer Educate
the patient about using barrier devices during sex; draw a
blood sample for a combination HIV antigen/antibody test;
schedule a follow-up appointment in 1 month to review test
results and discuss options for PrEP
Rationale: Education on using barriers during sexual activity
(e.g., condom/dental dams) is important. Daily oral preexposure
prophylaxis (PrEP), such as tenofovir emtricitabine, is
recommended for sexually active persons who are at risk for HIV.
PrEP is used in HIV-negative persons, so the nurse practitioner
must wait for the test results before prescribing. It is appropriate
to schedule a 1-month follow-up to review the test results and
discuss PrEP options (if test is negative). It is not appropriate
ethically or legally to contact the partner; however, it would be
appropriate for the patient to encourage his partner to get tested.
An older adult male presents with complaints of sharp flank and back
pain. The patient has difficulty answering questions because of
,severity of pain. Blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. The patient has a 20-
pack-year smoking history. Abdomen is distended upon palpitation.
Which diagnosis is most likely?
a) Congestive heart failure
b) Infective endocarditis
c) Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm
d) Acute myocardial infarction Correct Answer Dissecting
abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Rationale:Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm is a sudden
onset of severe, sharp, excruciating pain located in the abdomen,
back, or flank area, accompanied by a distended abdomen and
hypotension. Older male adults with a smoking history and
hypertension are at higher risk. Congestive heart failure
symptoms are dyspnea, fatigue, dry cough, and swollen feet and
ankles. Patients with infective endocarditis present with fever,
chills, and malaise, along with the presence of a new murmur.
Acute myocardial infarction generally presents with a gradual
onset of intense and heavy chest discomfort that feels like a
squeezing, tightness, and heavy pressure in the chest.
Mrs. Harris a 67-year-old woman who is in the early stages of
Alzheimer disease. She suffers from mild dementia. In this type of
Alzheimer dementia which of the following would you use as the
mainstay treatment?
a) Vitamin E 1000 IU twice daily
b) cholinesterase inhibitors
c) NSAIDS
d) Selgiline 5 mg twice daily Correct Answer cholinesterase
inhibitors
Rationale:The mainstay treatment for mild to moderate stage
Alzheimer-type dementia is the use of cholinesterase inhibitors.
These include donepezil (Aricept), rivastigmine (Exelon), and
galantamine (Razadyne). They have a clear, although minor and
time-limited benefit.
,When listening to your 86-year-old patient's heart murmur, you note
that it is so loud that it can be heard with the stethoscope completely
off the chest. How do you grade the murmur?
a) IV/VI.
b) I/VI.
c) V/VI.
d) VI/VI. Correct Answer VI/VI.
Rationale: Grading heart murmurs follows this system: I/VI:
Heart murmur makes faint sound and may not be heard when
patient changes position. II/VI: Heart murmur is quiet but can be
heard as soon as the stethoscope is placed on the chest. III/VI:
Heart murmur is moderately loud. IV/VI: Heart murmur is loud
and accompanied by a palpable thrill. V/VI: Heart murmur is
very loud and can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the
chest. VI/VI: Heart murmur is very loud and can be heard with
the stethoscope completely off the patient's chest.
Which of the following persons would not be a candidate for the
antipneumococcal vaccine?
a) a 65-year-old healthy female living with her family
b) a 35-year-old patient with HIV infection
c) a 58-year-old male resident of a nursing home
d) a 55-year-old female living alone Correct Answer a 55-year-old
female living alone
Rationale: The antipneumococcal vaccine is not indicated for an
otherwise healthy person who is under the age of 65 unless there
are other health factors involved. Living alone has no bearing on
the need for the vaccine. The vaccine is indicated for persons with
HIV infection, persons living in nursing homes, and all adults 65
years or older regardless of health status.
Which of the following diseases is more likely to cause chronic pelvic
pain rather than acute pelvic pain?
, a) ectopic pregnancy
b) PID
c) ovarian cysts
d) interstitial cystitis Correct Answer interstitial cystitis
Rationale: Interstitial cystitis is more likely to cause chronic
pelvic pain rather than acute pelvic pain as in the other choices.
Other causes of chronic pelvic pain include: endometriosis,
leiomyomas, and malignancy.
You have a 58-year-old male patient with possible pancreatic cancer.
You will not order an abdominal ultrasound for diagnosis because it is
limited by which of the following?
a) previous history of pancreatic disease
b) patient's age
c) the presence of intestinal gas
d) size of tumor Correct Answer the presence of intestinal gas
Rationale: The usefulness of abdominal ultrasound is limited by
the presence of intestinal gas. Abdominal CT scan is more helpful
in identifying pancreatic cancer.
A 58-year-old male presents in the office with a glucose of 309
mg/dL and is symptomatic for Type II diabetes mellitus. What should
be done to manage him FIRST?
a) Start insulin
b) Start metformin plus pioglitazone
c) Have him return tomorrow to recheck his blood glucose
d) Start metformin Correct Answer Start insulin
Rationale: Most oral agents will have little effect on his glucose
and it should be lowered immediately. Therefore, insulin is the
best agent to reduce the blood sugar so that oral agents will have
a chance to work. He should return to the clinic the next day for a
recheck of the blood glucose and medication adjustment.
ANCC FNP Exam Latest Version All
Questions and Detailed Answers with
Rationale 2024| Verified A+ Grade
A nurse practitioner working in a community health clinic sees a male
patient who expresses concern about starting a homosexual
relationship with a new partner. Which of the following is the best
plan to follow during this visit? (Select all that apply.)
Contact the patient's partner to schedule HIV testing
a) Educate the patient about using barrier devices during sex
b) Prescribe daily oral PrEP
c) Draw a blood sample for a combination HIV antigen/antibody
test
d) Schedule a follow-up appointment in 1 month to review test
results and discuss options for PrEP Correct Answer Educate
the patient about using barrier devices during sex; draw a
blood sample for a combination HIV antigen/antibody test;
schedule a follow-up appointment in 1 month to review test
results and discuss options for PrEP
Rationale: Education on using barriers during sexual activity
(e.g., condom/dental dams) is important. Daily oral preexposure
prophylaxis (PrEP), such as tenofovir emtricitabine, is
recommended for sexually active persons who are at risk for HIV.
PrEP is used in HIV-negative persons, so the nurse practitioner
must wait for the test results before prescribing. It is appropriate
to schedule a 1-month follow-up to review the test results and
discuss PrEP options (if test is negative). It is not appropriate
ethically or legally to contact the partner; however, it would be
appropriate for the patient to encourage his partner to get tested.
An older adult male presents with complaints of sharp flank and back
pain. The patient has difficulty answering questions because of
,severity of pain. Blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. The patient has a 20-
pack-year smoking history. Abdomen is distended upon palpitation.
Which diagnosis is most likely?
a) Congestive heart failure
b) Infective endocarditis
c) Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm
d) Acute myocardial infarction Correct Answer Dissecting
abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Rationale:Dissecting abdominal aortic aneurysm is a sudden
onset of severe, sharp, excruciating pain located in the abdomen,
back, or flank area, accompanied by a distended abdomen and
hypotension. Older male adults with a smoking history and
hypertension are at higher risk. Congestive heart failure
symptoms are dyspnea, fatigue, dry cough, and swollen feet and
ankles. Patients with infective endocarditis present with fever,
chills, and malaise, along with the presence of a new murmur.
Acute myocardial infarction generally presents with a gradual
onset of intense and heavy chest discomfort that feels like a
squeezing, tightness, and heavy pressure in the chest.
Mrs. Harris a 67-year-old woman who is in the early stages of
Alzheimer disease. She suffers from mild dementia. In this type of
Alzheimer dementia which of the following would you use as the
mainstay treatment?
a) Vitamin E 1000 IU twice daily
b) cholinesterase inhibitors
c) NSAIDS
d) Selgiline 5 mg twice daily Correct Answer cholinesterase
inhibitors
Rationale:The mainstay treatment for mild to moderate stage
Alzheimer-type dementia is the use of cholinesterase inhibitors.
These include donepezil (Aricept), rivastigmine (Exelon), and
galantamine (Razadyne). They have a clear, although minor and
time-limited benefit.
,When listening to your 86-year-old patient's heart murmur, you note
that it is so loud that it can be heard with the stethoscope completely
off the chest. How do you grade the murmur?
a) IV/VI.
b) I/VI.
c) V/VI.
d) VI/VI. Correct Answer VI/VI.
Rationale: Grading heart murmurs follows this system: I/VI:
Heart murmur makes faint sound and may not be heard when
patient changes position. II/VI: Heart murmur is quiet but can be
heard as soon as the stethoscope is placed on the chest. III/VI:
Heart murmur is moderately loud. IV/VI: Heart murmur is loud
and accompanied by a palpable thrill. V/VI: Heart murmur is
very loud and can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the
chest. VI/VI: Heart murmur is very loud and can be heard with
the stethoscope completely off the patient's chest.
Which of the following persons would not be a candidate for the
antipneumococcal vaccine?
a) a 65-year-old healthy female living with her family
b) a 35-year-old patient with HIV infection
c) a 58-year-old male resident of a nursing home
d) a 55-year-old female living alone Correct Answer a 55-year-old
female living alone
Rationale: The antipneumococcal vaccine is not indicated for an
otherwise healthy person who is under the age of 65 unless there
are other health factors involved. Living alone has no bearing on
the need for the vaccine. The vaccine is indicated for persons with
HIV infection, persons living in nursing homes, and all adults 65
years or older regardless of health status.
Which of the following diseases is more likely to cause chronic pelvic
pain rather than acute pelvic pain?
, a) ectopic pregnancy
b) PID
c) ovarian cysts
d) interstitial cystitis Correct Answer interstitial cystitis
Rationale: Interstitial cystitis is more likely to cause chronic
pelvic pain rather than acute pelvic pain as in the other choices.
Other causes of chronic pelvic pain include: endometriosis,
leiomyomas, and malignancy.
You have a 58-year-old male patient with possible pancreatic cancer.
You will not order an abdominal ultrasound for diagnosis because it is
limited by which of the following?
a) previous history of pancreatic disease
b) patient's age
c) the presence of intestinal gas
d) size of tumor Correct Answer the presence of intestinal gas
Rationale: The usefulness of abdominal ultrasound is limited by
the presence of intestinal gas. Abdominal CT scan is more helpful
in identifying pancreatic cancer.
A 58-year-old male presents in the office with a glucose of 309
mg/dL and is symptomatic for Type II diabetes mellitus. What should
be done to manage him FIRST?
a) Start insulin
b) Start metformin plus pioglitazone
c) Have him return tomorrow to recheck his blood glucose
d) Start metformin Correct Answer Start insulin
Rationale: Most oral agents will have little effect on his glucose
and it should be lowered immediately. Therefore, insulin is the
best agent to reduce the blood sugar so that oral agents will have
a chance to work. He should return to the clinic the next day for a
recheck of the blood glucose and medication adjustment.
