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HESI FUNDAMENTALS EXAM-w

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HESI FUNDAMENTALS EXAM-with 100% verified answers- 1. The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive? A. 31 gtt/min. B. 62 gtt/min. C. 93 gtt/min. D. 124 gtt/min. (D) is the correct calculation: Convert lbs to kg: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Determine the dosage for this client: 5 mcg × 82.73 = 413.65 mcg/min. Determine how many mcg are contained in 1 ml: 250/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg per ml. The client is to receive 413.65 mcg/min, and there are 200 mcg/ml; so the client is to receive 2.07ml per minute. With a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, then 60 × 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min (D) OR, using dimensional analysis: gtt/min = 60 gtt/ml X 250 ml/50 mg X 1 mg/1,000 mcg X 5 mcg/kg/min X 1 kg/2.2 lbs X 182 lbs. Correct Answer: D 2. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take? A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time. B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider. C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube. D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling. Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) val

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HESI FUNDAMENTALS EXAM-with 100%
verified answers-2022-2023
1. The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution
at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60
gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
A. 31 gtt/min.
B. 62 gtt/min.
C. 93 gtt/min.
D. 124 gtt/min.

(D) is the correct calculation: Convert lbs to kg: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Determine the dosage
for this client: 5 mcg × 82.73 = 413.65 mcg/min. Determine how many mcg are contained in
1 ml: 250/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg per ml. The client is to receive 413.65 mcg/min, and there
are 200 mcg/ml; so the client is to receive 2.07ml per minute. With a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml,
then 60 × 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min (D) OR, using dimensional analysis: gtt/min = 60 gtt/ml X
250 ml/50 mg X 1 mg/1,000 mcg X 5 mcg/kg/min X 1 kg/2.2 lbs X 182 lbs.
Correct Answer: D

2. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube
and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a
few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take?

A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time.
B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the
healthcare provider.
C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from
the tube.
D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.


Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small bore
feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration.
Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of
air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these
tubes, and the nurse should assess tube placement in this way prior to taking any other action
(C). (A and B) are not indicated. The auscultating method (D) has been found to be unreliable
for small-bore feeding tubes.
Correct Answer: C

3. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline
tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day.

, Since, at the time of discharge, timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing
schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?
A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
C. Before breakfast, before lunch and before dinner.
D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule (B) to provide
the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. (A, C, and D) do
not provide around-the-clock dosing. Food may alter absorption of the medication (D).
Correct Answer: B

4. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At
what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?
A. 13 ml/hour.
B. 63 ml/hour.
C. 80 ml/hour.
D. 125 ml/hour.

(B) is the correct calculation: To calculate this problem correctly, remember that the dose of
KCl is not used in the calculation. 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour.
Correct Answer: B

5. An obese male client discusses with the nurse his plans to begin a long-term weight loss
regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive aerobic exercise
program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management classes. After praising the
client for his decision, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

A. Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned
exercise program.
B. Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level,
making you want to eat more.
C. Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on
a stress management class.
D. Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of
accomplishment and motivation.

The most important teaching is (A), so that the client will not begin a dangerous level of
exercise when he is not sufficiently fit. This might result in chest pain, a heart attack, or
stroke. (B, C, and D) are important instructions, but are of less priority than (A).
Correct Answer: A

6. The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer
the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler?

A. Immediately after exhalation.

, B. During the inhalation.
C. At the end of three inhalations.
D. Immediately after inhalation.

The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of inhalation (B).
After the medication is delivered, the client should remove the mouthpiece, keeping his/her
lips closed and breath held for several seconds to allow for distribution of the medication.
The client should not deliver the dose as stated in (A or D), and should deliver no more than
two inhalations at a time (C).
Correct Answer: B

7. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO.
Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to administer?
A. ½ tablet.
B. 1 tablet.
C. 1½ tablets.
D. 2 tablets.

(C) is the correct calculation: D/H × Q = 7.5/5 × 1 tablet = 1½ tablets.
Correct Answer: C

8. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20
mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
A. 1 ml.
B. 1.5 ml.
C. 1.75 ml.
D. 2 ml.

(B) is the correct calculation: Dosage on hand/amount on hand = Dosage desired/x amount.
20 mg : 2 ml = 15 mg : x . 20x = 30. x = 30/20; = 1½ or 1.5 ml.
Correct Answer: B

9. Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5½ hours. How
much heparin has the client received?
A. 11,000 units.
B. 13,000 units.
C. 15,000 units.
D. 17,000 units.

is the correct calculation: 20,000 units/500 ml = 40 units (the amount of units in one ml of
fluid). 40 units/ml x 50 ml/hr = 2,000 units/hour (1,000 units in 1/2 hour). 5.5 x 2,000 =
11,000 (A). OR, multiply 5 x 2,000 and add the 1/2 hour amount of 1,000 to reach the same
conclusion = 11,000 units.
Correct Answer: A

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