1. It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by
an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host 9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one
through different modes of transmission: person to another, such infection is:
a. Contagious disease a. Communicable
b. Communicable disease b. Infectious
c. Infectious disease c. Contagious
d. Iatrogenic disease d. Virulent
2. A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal 10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and
resulting from an infection: influenza when taking into consideration being
a. Contagious disease infectious and contagious?
b. Communicable disease a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is
c. Infectious disease contagious
d. Iatrogenic disease b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is
contagious
3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are c. Both are contagious and infectious
highly specific to a certain disease is known as: d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious
a. Tell tall signs but only infectious
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign 11. Which of the following statements are true?
d. Fastigium sign a. All communicable diseases are infectious
and contagious.
4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in b. All contagious diseases are infectious
the hospital and called as nosocomial? but not all infectious are contagious.
a. When infection occurred upon admission c. Communicable diseases are all contagious
b. When infection is acquired before discharge but not infectious.
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory d. Infectious diseases are contagious and also
of the hospital communicable.
d. When the patient is within 14 days of
hospital stay 12. An organism that is capable of invading and
multiplying in the body of the host:
5. A infection that is completely manifested by signs and a. Causative agent
symptoms: b. Reservoir
a. Opportunistic infection c. Bacteria
b. True infection d. Carrier
c. Communicable infection
d. Contagious infection 13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on
its degree of:
6. Which of the following is the main cause of a. Pathogenecity
nosocomial infection? b. Communicability
a. Surgical wound infection c. Teratogenecity
b. Sepsis d. Epidemiology
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Respiratory tract infection 14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to
cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000
7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live bacteria to initiate disease. This property of
in a non-nutritive environment and is easily microorganism is known as:
transmitted in the hospital? a. Viability
a. S. aureus b. Toxigenecity
b. P. aeruginosa c. Virulence
c. E. Coli d. Invasiveness
d. H. influenza
15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional
8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with relationship of number and infection refers to what
low degree of virulence but may take advantage when property of the causative agent?
the body is immunocompromised: a. Dose
a. Opportunistic infection b. Antigenicity
b. Nosocomial infection c. Specificity
c. True infection d. Mode of action
d. Parasitic infection
,16. A person whose medical history and symptoms 23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring
suggest that he may now have or be developing some it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
communicable disease is known as: a. Mechanical vector
a. Patient b. Biological vector
b. Carrier c. Accidental host
c. Contact d. Intermediate vector
d. Suspect
24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an
17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the infectious disease?
gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
when they lyse themselves (suicide bomber): b. A pregnant mother
a. Exotoxin c. A healthy sexual worker
b. Enterotoxin d. A patient who is discharged from the hospital
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin 25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic
signs of a specific disease is present is:
18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract a. Incubation period
that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and b. Prodromal period
exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the c. Invasion/ fastigium period
intestinal tract: d. Convalescent period
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin 26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs
c. Endotoxin intermittently or on and off in different parts of the
d. Epitoxin country. This is pattern of disease occurrence is
known as:
19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus a. Endemic
of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat b. Epidemic
and are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate c. Sporadic
parasite: d. Pandemic
a. Virus
b. Protozoa 27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds
c. Amoeba of hamburger eaters in the United States:
d. Bacteria a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that c. Colicollus coli
droplet transmission of microorganism can be d. Legionairre’s coli
prevented. This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room 28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
window a. Primary
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from b. Secondary
each other c. Tertiary
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible. d. Quarternary
21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the 29. Which of the following is a primary level of disease
reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried prevention:
through air current in the form of droplet nuclei, the a. Mass screening
mode of transmission is: b. Contact tracing
a. Airborne c. Hand washing
b. Droplet d. Prompt treatment
c. Pressurized
d. Fomites 30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases
through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part
22. Which of the following is considered a fomite? of IEC that involves behavioral change?
a. Staphylococcus aureus carrier a. Information
b. Urinals b. Education
c. Mosquito c. Communication
d. Hands d. Integration
, 31. An information learned and caused a change in d. Sexual worker’s occupation sanitation
behavior of the client will only be effective if: program
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the 38. The four R’s of food sanitation includes all of the
family or even the society following, except:
c. If kept and considered as own a. Right Source
d. Written and well documented b. Right Price
c. Right Storage
32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced d. Right Cooking
intradermally at right deltoid region?
a. BCG 39. An adequately cooked food is heated with the
b. DPT temperature of:
c. Measles a. 10-60 degrees C
d. Hep B b. 70 degrees C
c. 100 degrees C
33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from d. 150 degrees C
heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the
freezer? 40. For right storage, the following is correct except:
a. Measles a. Foods should not be stored longer than 2
b. DPT hours
c. BCG b. Reheat with 60 degrees centrigrade.
d. Hep B c. Food must not be stored with room
temperature
34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is: d. No rethawing, if possible.
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8
weeks after the 2nd dose 41. Food establishments in the community shall be
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the
each doses following is important for the cook or cook helper to
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval have?
d. Given together with DPT and OPV a. Inspection
b. Approval of all food sources
35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion c. Updated health services
within 24 hours after giving DPT? d. Compliance to health certificate
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT. 42. A patient is removed from the other persons because
c. Give the child DTaP instead. he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This
d. The child must begin with DT only on the kind of isolation is called as:
second dose because the child reacted a. Strict isolation
negatively and developed pertussis with the b. Contact isolation
first dose. c. Source isolation
d. Reverse isolation
36. Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?
a. It is given for mothers for two doses with one 43. Which of the following is true regarding source
month interval with booster doses every next isolation?
pregnancy. a. Negative pressure in the room and
b. It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid positive outside
region b. Positive pressure in the room and negative
c. It provides 99% immunity at the third dose outside
d. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years c. Equalized pressure from both areas
if TT2 is given d. Negative pressure should be maintained
inside and out
37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all
factors in man’s physical environment which may 44. The restriction of activities of well person that has
exercise or may not exercise deleterious effect on his been exposed to a case of communicable disease to
health and well-being. Which of the following is not prevent disease transmission during the incubation
included? period but without limitation to movements:
a. Safe and Water Supply a. Complete quarantine
b. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal b. Source isolation
c. Food Sanitation c. Surveillance
d. Separation
an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host 9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one
through different modes of transmission: person to another, such infection is:
a. Contagious disease a. Communicable
b. Communicable disease b. Infectious
c. Infectious disease c. Contagious
d. Iatrogenic disease d. Virulent
2. A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal 10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and
resulting from an infection: influenza when taking into consideration being
a. Contagious disease infectious and contagious?
b. Communicable disease a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is
c. Infectious disease contagious
d. Iatrogenic disease b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is
contagious
3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are c. Both are contagious and infectious
highly specific to a certain disease is known as: d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious
a. Tell tall signs but only infectious
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign 11. Which of the following statements are true?
d. Fastigium sign a. All communicable diseases are infectious
and contagious.
4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in b. All contagious diseases are infectious
the hospital and called as nosocomial? but not all infectious are contagious.
a. When infection occurred upon admission c. Communicable diseases are all contagious
b. When infection is acquired before discharge but not infectious.
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory d. Infectious diseases are contagious and also
of the hospital communicable.
d. When the patient is within 14 days of
hospital stay 12. An organism that is capable of invading and
multiplying in the body of the host:
5. A infection that is completely manifested by signs and a. Causative agent
symptoms: b. Reservoir
a. Opportunistic infection c. Bacteria
b. True infection d. Carrier
c. Communicable infection
d. Contagious infection 13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on
its degree of:
6. Which of the following is the main cause of a. Pathogenecity
nosocomial infection? b. Communicability
a. Surgical wound infection c. Teratogenecity
b. Sepsis d. Epidemiology
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Respiratory tract infection 14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to
cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000
7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live bacteria to initiate disease. This property of
in a non-nutritive environment and is easily microorganism is known as:
transmitted in the hospital? a. Viability
a. S. aureus b. Toxigenecity
b. P. aeruginosa c. Virulence
c. E. Coli d. Invasiveness
d. H. influenza
15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional
8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with relationship of number and infection refers to what
low degree of virulence but may take advantage when property of the causative agent?
the body is immunocompromised: a. Dose
a. Opportunistic infection b. Antigenicity
b. Nosocomial infection c. Specificity
c. True infection d. Mode of action
d. Parasitic infection
,16. A person whose medical history and symptoms 23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring
suggest that he may now have or be developing some it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
communicable disease is known as: a. Mechanical vector
a. Patient b. Biological vector
b. Carrier c. Accidental host
c. Contact d. Intermediate vector
d. Suspect
24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an
17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the infectious disease?
gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
when they lyse themselves (suicide bomber): b. A pregnant mother
a. Exotoxin c. A healthy sexual worker
b. Enterotoxin d. A patient who is discharged from the hospital
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin 25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic
signs of a specific disease is present is:
18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract a. Incubation period
that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and b. Prodromal period
exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the c. Invasion/ fastigium period
intestinal tract: d. Convalescent period
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin 26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs
c. Endotoxin intermittently or on and off in different parts of the
d. Epitoxin country. This is pattern of disease occurrence is
known as:
19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus a. Endemic
of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat b. Epidemic
and are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate c. Sporadic
parasite: d. Pandemic
a. Virus
b. Protozoa 27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds
c. Amoeba of hamburger eaters in the United States:
d. Bacteria a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that c. Colicollus coli
droplet transmission of microorganism can be d. Legionairre’s coli
prevented. This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room 28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
window a. Primary
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from b. Secondary
each other c. Tertiary
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible. d. Quarternary
21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the 29. Which of the following is a primary level of disease
reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried prevention:
through air current in the form of droplet nuclei, the a. Mass screening
mode of transmission is: b. Contact tracing
a. Airborne c. Hand washing
b. Droplet d. Prompt treatment
c. Pressurized
d. Fomites 30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases
through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part
22. Which of the following is considered a fomite? of IEC that involves behavioral change?
a. Staphylococcus aureus carrier a. Information
b. Urinals b. Education
c. Mosquito c. Communication
d. Hands d. Integration
, 31. An information learned and caused a change in d. Sexual worker’s occupation sanitation
behavior of the client will only be effective if: program
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the 38. The four R’s of food sanitation includes all of the
family or even the society following, except:
c. If kept and considered as own a. Right Source
d. Written and well documented b. Right Price
c. Right Storage
32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced d. Right Cooking
intradermally at right deltoid region?
a. BCG 39. An adequately cooked food is heated with the
b. DPT temperature of:
c. Measles a. 10-60 degrees C
d. Hep B b. 70 degrees C
c. 100 degrees C
33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from d. 150 degrees C
heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the
freezer? 40. For right storage, the following is correct except:
a. Measles a. Foods should not be stored longer than 2
b. DPT hours
c. BCG b. Reheat with 60 degrees centrigrade.
d. Hep B c. Food must not be stored with room
temperature
34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is: d. No rethawing, if possible.
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8
weeks after the 2nd dose 41. Food establishments in the community shall be
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the
each doses following is important for the cook or cook helper to
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval have?
d. Given together with DPT and OPV a. Inspection
b. Approval of all food sources
35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion c. Updated health services
within 24 hours after giving DPT? d. Compliance to health certificate
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT. 42. A patient is removed from the other persons because
c. Give the child DTaP instead. he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This
d. The child must begin with DT only on the kind of isolation is called as:
second dose because the child reacted a. Strict isolation
negatively and developed pertussis with the b. Contact isolation
first dose. c. Source isolation
d. Reverse isolation
36. Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?
a. It is given for mothers for two doses with one 43. Which of the following is true regarding source
month interval with booster doses every next isolation?
pregnancy. a. Negative pressure in the room and
b. It is given with 0.05 cc, IM at deltoid positive outside
region b. Positive pressure in the room and negative
c. It provides 99% immunity at the third dose outside
d. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years c. Equalized pressure from both areas
if TT2 is given d. Negative pressure should be maintained
inside and out
37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all
factors in man’s physical environment which may 44. The restriction of activities of well person that has
exercise or may not exercise deleterious effect on his been exposed to a case of communicable disease to
health and well-being. Which of the following is not prevent disease transmission during the incubation
included? period but without limitation to movements:
a. Safe and Water Supply a. Complete quarantine
b. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal b. Source isolation
c. Food Sanitation c. Surveillance
d. Separation
