OB ANTEPARTUM CARE NCLEX QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
During an examination, a client who's 32 weeks' pregnant becomes dizzy, light-
headed, and pale while supine. What should the nurse do first?
1. Listen to fetal heart tones.
2. Take the client's blood pressure
3. Ask the client to breathe deeply
4. Turn the client on her left side.
4. Turn the client on her left side.
As the enlarging uterus increases pressure on the inferior vena cava, it compromises
venous return, which can cause dizziness, light-headedness, and pallor when the client
is supine. The nurse can relieve these symptoms by turning the client on her left side,
which relieves pressure on the vena cava and restores venous return. Although they're
valuable assessments, fetal heart tone and maternal blood pressure measurements
don't correct the problem. Because deep breathing has no effect on venous return, it
can't relieve the client's symptoms.
A nurse is reinforcing the instructions given to a client in her education plan
about the signs of labor. The nurse determines that the client has an accurate
understanding of the instructions when which statement is made by the client?
1. "False contractions are regular"
2. "False contractions intensify with walking."
3. "False contractions usually occur in the abdomen."
4. "False contractions move from the back to the front of the abdomen."
3. "False contractions usually occur in the abdomen."
False labor contractions are usually felt in the abdomen, are irregular, and are typically
relieved by walking. True labor contractions move from the back to the front of the
abdomen, are regular, and aren't relieved by walking.
Antepartum testing from a client pregnant with twins reveals a twin-to-twin
transfusion syndrome. The nurse is assisting with development of a plan of care.
Which condition will the nurse likely provide interventions for?
1. Anemia
2. Oligohydramnios
3. Polycythemia
4. Small size
3. Polycythemia
the recipient twin in twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (also known as twin-twin
transfusion syndrome) is transfused by the other twin. The recipient twin then becomes
polycythemic and commonly as heart failure due to circulatory overload. The donor twin
,becomes anemic. The recipient twin has polyhydramnios, not oligohydramnios. The
recipient twin is usually large, whereas the donor twin is usually small in size.
A pregnant client who reports painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks' gestation is
diagnosed with placenta previa, in which the placental edge reaches the internal
os. The nurse would suspect the client has which type of placenta previa?
1. Low-lying placenta previa
2. Marginal placenta previa
3. Partial placenta previa
4. Total placenta previa
2. Marginal placenta previa
A marginal placenta previa is characterized by implantation of the placenta in the
margin of the cervical os, not covering the os. A low-lying placenta is implanted in the
lower uterine segment but doesn't reach the cervical os. A partial placenta previa is the
partial occlusion of the cervial os by the placenta. The internal cervical os is completely
covered by the placenta in a total placenta previa.
A client is diagnosed with placenta previa at 28 weeks' gestation. Which
procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
1. Stat culture and sensitivity
2. Antenatal steroids after 34 weeks' gestation
3. Ultrasound examination every 2-3 weeks
4. Scheduled birth of the fetus before fetal maturity
3. Ultrasound examination every 2-3 weeks
Fetal surveillance through ultrasound examination every 2-3 weeks is indicated to
evaluate fetal growth, amniotic fluid, and placental location in clients with placenta
previa being expectantly managed. A stat culture and sensitivity would be done for
severe bleeding, or maternal or fetal distress, and isn't part of expectant management.
Antenatal steroids may be given to clients between 26-32 weeks' gestation to enhance
fetal lung maturity. In a hemodynamically stable mother, birth of the fetus should be
delayed until fetal lung maturity is attained.
A client with painless vaginal bleeding is suspected of having placenta previa.
The nurse will assist in preparing the client for which procedure?
1. Amniocentesis
2. Speculum examination
3. External fetal monitoring
4. Ultrasound
4. Ultrasound
When the mother and fetus are stabilized, ultrasound evaluation of the placenta should
be done to determine the cause of bleeding. Amniocentesis is contraindicated in
placenta previa. A digital or speculum examination shouldn't be done, as this may lead
to severe bleeding or hemorrhage. External fetal monitoring won't detect a placenta
, previa, although it will detect fetal distress, which may result from blood loss or placental
separation.
A client is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum after coming to the
antepartum unit with persistent vomiting, weight loss, and hypovolemia. While
gathering data from the client, which information is most significant?
1. Trophoblastic disease
2. Maternal age older than 35 years
3. Malnutrition
4. Low levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
1. Trophoblastic disease
Trophoblastic disease is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and
maternal age younger than 20 years are risk factors for developing hyperemesis
gravidarum. High levels of estrogen and HCG have been associated with hyperemesis.
A client has just been diagnosed with having a hydatidiform mole. When
reviewing the client's medical record, what is the most significant risk factor?
1. Age in 20s or 30s
2. High socioeconomic status
3. Primigravida
4. Prior molar gestation
4. Prior molar gestation
A previous molar gestation increases a woman's risk for developing a subsequent molar
gestation by four to five times. Adolescents and women age 40 years and older are at
increased risk for molar pregnancies. Multigravidas, especially women with a prior
pregnancy loss, and those with lower socioeconomic status are at an increased risk for
this problem.
A nurse is reinforcing education for a client entering the third trimester of
pregnancy. The nurse determines that the client understands the education when
stating she will immediately report which symptom?
1. Hemorrhoids
2. Blurred vision
3. Dyspnea on exerction
4. Increased vaginal mucus
2. Blurred vision
During pregnancy, blurred vision may be a danger sign of preeclampsia or eclampsia,
complications that require immediate attention because they can cause severe maternal
and fetal consequences. Although hemorrhoids may occur during pregnancy, they don't
require immediate attention. Dyspnea on exertion and increased vaginal mucus are
common discomforts caused by physiologic changes.
The nurse is caring for a client suspected of having a hydatidiform mole. Which
signs and symptoms would confirm this diagnosis?
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
During an examination, a client who's 32 weeks' pregnant becomes dizzy, light-
headed, and pale while supine. What should the nurse do first?
1. Listen to fetal heart tones.
2. Take the client's blood pressure
3. Ask the client to breathe deeply
4. Turn the client on her left side.
4. Turn the client on her left side.
As the enlarging uterus increases pressure on the inferior vena cava, it compromises
venous return, which can cause dizziness, light-headedness, and pallor when the client
is supine. The nurse can relieve these symptoms by turning the client on her left side,
which relieves pressure on the vena cava and restores venous return. Although they're
valuable assessments, fetal heart tone and maternal blood pressure measurements
don't correct the problem. Because deep breathing has no effect on venous return, it
can't relieve the client's symptoms.
A nurse is reinforcing the instructions given to a client in her education plan
about the signs of labor. The nurse determines that the client has an accurate
understanding of the instructions when which statement is made by the client?
1. "False contractions are regular"
2. "False contractions intensify with walking."
3. "False contractions usually occur in the abdomen."
4. "False contractions move from the back to the front of the abdomen."
3. "False contractions usually occur in the abdomen."
False labor contractions are usually felt in the abdomen, are irregular, and are typically
relieved by walking. True labor contractions move from the back to the front of the
abdomen, are regular, and aren't relieved by walking.
Antepartum testing from a client pregnant with twins reveals a twin-to-twin
transfusion syndrome. The nurse is assisting with development of a plan of care.
Which condition will the nurse likely provide interventions for?
1. Anemia
2. Oligohydramnios
3. Polycythemia
4. Small size
3. Polycythemia
the recipient twin in twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (also known as twin-twin
transfusion syndrome) is transfused by the other twin. The recipient twin then becomes
polycythemic and commonly as heart failure due to circulatory overload. The donor twin
,becomes anemic. The recipient twin has polyhydramnios, not oligohydramnios. The
recipient twin is usually large, whereas the donor twin is usually small in size.
A pregnant client who reports painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks' gestation is
diagnosed with placenta previa, in which the placental edge reaches the internal
os. The nurse would suspect the client has which type of placenta previa?
1. Low-lying placenta previa
2. Marginal placenta previa
3. Partial placenta previa
4. Total placenta previa
2. Marginal placenta previa
A marginal placenta previa is characterized by implantation of the placenta in the
margin of the cervical os, not covering the os. A low-lying placenta is implanted in the
lower uterine segment but doesn't reach the cervical os. A partial placenta previa is the
partial occlusion of the cervial os by the placenta. The internal cervical os is completely
covered by the placenta in a total placenta previa.
A client is diagnosed with placenta previa at 28 weeks' gestation. Which
procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
1. Stat culture and sensitivity
2. Antenatal steroids after 34 weeks' gestation
3. Ultrasound examination every 2-3 weeks
4. Scheduled birth of the fetus before fetal maturity
3. Ultrasound examination every 2-3 weeks
Fetal surveillance through ultrasound examination every 2-3 weeks is indicated to
evaluate fetal growth, amniotic fluid, and placental location in clients with placenta
previa being expectantly managed. A stat culture and sensitivity would be done for
severe bleeding, or maternal or fetal distress, and isn't part of expectant management.
Antenatal steroids may be given to clients between 26-32 weeks' gestation to enhance
fetal lung maturity. In a hemodynamically stable mother, birth of the fetus should be
delayed until fetal lung maturity is attained.
A client with painless vaginal bleeding is suspected of having placenta previa.
The nurse will assist in preparing the client for which procedure?
1. Amniocentesis
2. Speculum examination
3. External fetal monitoring
4. Ultrasound
4. Ultrasound
When the mother and fetus are stabilized, ultrasound evaluation of the placenta should
be done to determine the cause of bleeding. Amniocentesis is contraindicated in
placenta previa. A digital or speculum examination shouldn't be done, as this may lead
to severe bleeding or hemorrhage. External fetal monitoring won't detect a placenta
, previa, although it will detect fetal distress, which may result from blood loss or placental
separation.
A client is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum after coming to the
antepartum unit with persistent vomiting, weight loss, and hypovolemia. While
gathering data from the client, which information is most significant?
1. Trophoblastic disease
2. Maternal age older than 35 years
3. Malnutrition
4. Low levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
1. Trophoblastic disease
Trophoblastic disease is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and
maternal age younger than 20 years are risk factors for developing hyperemesis
gravidarum. High levels of estrogen and HCG have been associated with hyperemesis.
A client has just been diagnosed with having a hydatidiform mole. When
reviewing the client's medical record, what is the most significant risk factor?
1. Age in 20s or 30s
2. High socioeconomic status
3. Primigravida
4. Prior molar gestation
4. Prior molar gestation
A previous molar gestation increases a woman's risk for developing a subsequent molar
gestation by four to five times. Adolescents and women age 40 years and older are at
increased risk for molar pregnancies. Multigravidas, especially women with a prior
pregnancy loss, and those with lower socioeconomic status are at an increased risk for
this problem.
A nurse is reinforcing education for a client entering the third trimester of
pregnancy. The nurse determines that the client understands the education when
stating she will immediately report which symptom?
1. Hemorrhoids
2. Blurred vision
3. Dyspnea on exerction
4. Increased vaginal mucus
2. Blurred vision
During pregnancy, blurred vision may be a danger sign of preeclampsia or eclampsia,
complications that require immediate attention because they can cause severe maternal
and fetal consequences. Although hemorrhoids may occur during pregnancy, they don't
require immediate attention. Dyspnea on exertion and increased vaginal mucus are
common discomforts caused by physiologic changes.
The nurse is caring for a client suspected of having a hydatidiform mole. Which
signs and symptoms would confirm this diagnosis?
