BUSINESS 101 - DEL MEDICO EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2024 UPDATE

BUSINESS 101 - DEL MEDICO EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2024 UPDATETEST #2-V1 BUSINESS 101 - DEL MEDICO EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2024 UPDATE Choose the best answer. Do not write on the test. 1) Which aspect of the management process involves determining what the organization needs to do and how best to get it done? A) Organizing B) Planning C) Controlling D) Processing E) Monitoring 2) Comparing actual performance against standards is an example of which function of the management process? A) Planning B) Organizing C) Leading D) Controlling E) Strategizing 3) Which type of manager spends most of their time working with and supervising the employees who report to them? A) First-line managers B) Information managers C) Top managers D) Chief executive officers E) Operations managers 4) Which level of management sets general policies, formulates strategies, approves all significant decisions, and represents the company in dealings with other firms and with government bodies? A) Operations managers B) Production managers C) Top managers D) Middle managers E) First-line managers 5) What type of skills are needed to understand and work well with people in the workplace? A) Human relations skills B) Technical skills C) Conceptual skills D) Motor skills E) Decision-making skills 6) Which of the following refers to a person's ability to think in the abstract, to diagnose and analyze different situations, and to see beyond the present situation? A) Human relations skills B) Decision-making skills C) Conceptual skills D) Production skills E) Technical skills 7) Strategic planning looks at the organization as a whole, while planning focuses on daily tasks and decision. A) tactical B) strategic C) mission D) operational E) long-term 8) is choosing amount two or more alternatives. A) Contingency planning B) Decision-making C) Organizational selection D) Utility analysis E) Strategic 9) Which of the following BEST describes a mission? A) An objective that a business hopes and plans to achieve B) A broad set of organizational plans for implementing decisions made for achieving organizational goals C) The shared experiences, stories, beliefs, and norms that characterize an organization D) An organization's statement of how it will achieve its purpose in the environment in which it conducts business E) An organization's competitive standing in the marketplace 10) When conducting a SWOT analysis of an organization, which question can help management brainstorm for the opportunities section of the analysis? A) What external changes present interesting possibilities? B) What aspect of the organization's vision can be altered? C) What necessary skills do the organization's employees currently lack? D) What does the organization offer that makes it stand out from other organizations? E) What external economic forces can affect the organization's bottom line? 11) Which element of an organization is defined by shared experiences, stories, beliefs, and norms? A) Its human resources B) Its product philosophy C) Its corporate culture D) Its mission statement E) Its organizational structure 12) Which term refers to the specification of jobs to be done within an organization and the ways in which those jobs relate to one another? A) Delegation B) A mission statement C) Cross training D) Role responsibility E) Organizational structure 13) Reporting relationships within a company are indicated on an organization chart and represent A) organizational structure. B) mission and strategy responsibility. C) areas of specialization. D) chain of command. E) decision-making responsibility. 14) What is dividing a store into a men's department, a women's department, and a luggage department an example of? A) Product departmentalization B) Customer departmentalization C) Process departmentalization D) Geographic departmentalization E) International departmentalization 15) A snack food firm is divided by the areas they serve, including one division for the United States, one for Europe, and another for Asia. How is this firm departmentalized? A) By customer B) By process C) By geography D) By function E) By productivity 16) What is the process of designing specific jobs that need to be done and identifying the people who will perform them called? A) Departmentalization B) Job specialization C) Group tasks D) Segmentation E) Team cohesion 17) Which term identifies the grouping of jobs into logical units? A) Specialization B) Accountability C) Authorization D) Departmentalization E) Process management 18) What type of structure represents one with relatively few layers of managers? A) Tall organizational structure B) Short organizational structure C) Flat organizational structure D) Elliptical organizational structure E) Triangular organizational structure 19) In tall organizations, which feature describes the span of control? A) Short B) Tall C) Wide D) Narrow E) Vertical 20) What are an organization's specialists in law, accounting, and human resource management commonly called? A) Profit centers B) Cost centers C) Staff members D) Line members E) Unit managers 21) What type of management is exemplified by the idea that managers should delegate to subordinates and allow those subordinates to be responsible for decisions? A) Authentic management B) Linear management C) Centralized management D) Group management E) Decentralized management 22) What structure is used when an organization has little or no formal structure and with only a handful of permanent employees, and when needed, is supplemented by temporary employees? A) Team structure B) Virtual structure C) Learning structure D) Flexible structure E) Balanced structure 23) What are everyday social interactions among employees that transcend formal jobs and job interrelationships called? A) Traditional structure B) Informal organization C) Networking opportunities D) Production organization E) Community structure 24) Which term refers to all the activities involved in making products–goods and services–for customers? A) Operations B) Processes C) Planning D) Scheduling E) Performance 25) When a firm produces goods for mass consumption, what type of goods production method is generally used? A) High-contact systems B) Make-to-order C) Layout planning D) Low-contact systems E) Make-to-stock 26) What goods-producing operations method is designed around specific customer specifications? A) High-contact systems B) Make-to-order C) Layout planning D) Low-contact systems E) Make-to-stock 27) Which of the following would be best used when producing make-to-stock operations or mass production of a product? A) Fixed position layout B) Process layout C) Customer-product layout D) Operations scheduling layout E) Assembly line layout 28) Why do organizations use fixed-position layouts for some goods or services? A) When the customer requests it B) When it is more cost effective C) When it increases the quality level D) When it is difficult to move the good or service E) When consistency in production is needed 29) Which of the following is a scheduling tool that breaks down large projects into steps to be performed and specifies the time required to perform each one? A) Myers graphic B) Critical path chart C) Gantt chart D) Process analysis graph E) Master schedule 30) Which scheduling tool shows the necessary sequence of activities in a project and identifies the critical path? A) Gantt chart B) Process flowchart C) Detailed schedule D) Master production schedule E) PERT chart 31) What is the name for a production system in which all the needed materials and parts arrive at the precise moment they are required for each production stage? A) Quality control system B) Process control system C) Just-in-time production D) Standardized production E) Custom-products production 32) Which of the following refers to the receiving, storing, handling, and counting of all raw materials, partly finished goods, and finished goods? A) Materials handling B) Inventory control C) Quality control D) Wholesaling E) Distribution control 33) Which term refers to the strategy of paying suppliers and distributors to perform certain business processes or to provide needed materials or services? A) Outsourcing B) Reengineering C) Controlling D) Scheduling E) Warehousing 34) Behaviors that detract from, instead of contribute to, organizational performance are known as what? A) Inclusive ) Negative reinforcement C) Counterproductive D) Turnover E) Associative 35) Which of the following might you, as a manager, expect to see in an employee who has a low degree of conscientiousness? A) A tendency to be unprepared at meetings B) A tendency to have a high degree of performance C) A tendency to focus on relatively few tasks at one time D) A high level of organization and self-discipline E) An ability to meet deadlines without fail 36) What causes people to behave in a certain way on the job? A) Person-job fit B) Inducements C) Pay D) Psychological contracts E) Motivation 37) What is the Hawthorne effect? A) The belief that employees are motivated by money alone B) The conclusion that workers are more productive if management pays attention to them C) The determination that the level of lighting in a workplace has no effect on productivity D) The theory that workers are more productive if their jobs are analyzed closely E) The unspoken agreement between the employee and the employer 38) According to Maslow's model, a set of needs will be a motivator until which of the following occurs? A) The needs are satisfied. B) New needs are identified. C) The person becomes self-motivated. D) A supervisor changes the work. E) The needs are replaced by hygiene factors. 39) Which of the following lists Maslow's Hierarchy of Human Needs in order, starting with the most basic? A) Physiological, security, social, esteem, self-actualization B) Social, security, physiological, esteem, self-actualization C) Physiological, self-actualization, security, esteem, social D) Physiological, esteem, security, social, self-actualization E) Esteem, self-actualization, social, physiological, security 40) If a manager believes that his employees are self-motivated and growth-oriented, what type of manager is he? A) Theory Y B) Theory X C) Classical D) Hierarchical E) Expectant 41) Which of the following theories focuses on people evaluating their treatment by the organization relative to the treatment of others? A) Equity theory B) Hierarchy of needs C) Expectancy theory D) Goal-setting theory E) X and Y theory 42) Scientific management is best described as a theory of motivation which states A) job satisfaction depends on two factors, hygiene and motivation. B) people are motivated to work toward rewards that they want and that they have a reasonable chance of obtaining. C) people evaluate their treatment by the organization relative to the treatment of others. D) managers should analyze jobs to find the most efficient methods and use money as a primary motivator. E) people will work more productively as long as they receive some kind of attention from management. 43) A manager wants to motivate the maintenance staff to be more productive. She starts by providing training and assures employees that high productivity will be rewarded. Employees are asked to identify the rewards that would mean the most to them. The manager likely subscribes to which theory of motivation? A) Equity B) Expectancy C) Two-factor D) Hierarchy of needs E) Productivity 44) An employee's level of effort began to decline when they learned a new employee with far less experience was hired at the same salary. The employee's lack of motivation can best be described by which theory of motivation? A) Equity B) Expectancy C) Two-factor D) Scientific management E) Planning 45) According to Frederick Herzberg, which of the following is considered a hygiene factor? A) Recognition B) Hours C) Working conditions D) Additional time off E) Added responsibility 46) Which of the following allows people to choose their working hours by adjusting a standard work schedule on a daily or weekly basis? A) Job enrichment B) Flextime programs C) Job enlargement D) Job redesign E) Work sharing 47) Which of the following can motivate workers by achieving a more satisfactory fit between workers and their jobs? A) Job redesign B) Team management C) MBO D) Training E) Increase pay 48) Which of the following describes the concept of leadership? A) The processes and behaviors used by someone to determine the optimal decision among several options B) The processes and behaviors used by someone to motivate, inspire, and influence the behaviors of others C) The processes and behaviors used by someone to establish the organizational structure of a firm D) The processes and behaviors used by someone to manage the functioning of an organization E) The processes and behaviors used by someone to achieve tangible outcomes within an organization 49) What type of power is granted through the established hierarchy within the organization? A) Legitimate power B) Reward power C) Referent power D) Expert power E) Coercive power 50) What type of power is more abstract, often based on loyalty or charisma? A) Legitimate power B) Reward power C) Referent power D) Expert power E) Coercive power 51) What area was the earliest research on leadership MOST concerned with? A) Leadership behaviors B) Leadership traits C) Leadership situations D) Leadership integrity E) Leadership roles 52) Leadership researchers in the late 1940s believed that leaders should engage in which of the following behaviors? A) Mostly employee-focused leader behavior B) Mostly task-focused leader behavior C) Both employee-focused leader behavior and task-focused leader behavior in equal amounts D) A mixture of employee-focused leader behavior and task-focused behavior depending on the task E) A mixture of employee-focused leader behavior and task-focused behavior depending on the employees 53) What was a major problem with the trait approach to leadership? A) The studies were too innovative and thus were not taken seriously at the time. B) The studies were too inconsistent and thus not very practical. C) The results were not very inspiring and thus ignored. D) The results were found to be too pessimistic and thus were dismissed as useless. E) The studies were too focused on certain leaders and thus were dismissed as irrelevant. 54) Which approach to leadership is based on the assumption that appropriate behavior varies from one experience to another? A) Situational leadership B) Trait-based leadership C) Transformational leadership D) Transactional leadership E) Charismatic leadership 55) When a leader asks for employees' suggestions and input in the decision-making process, what type of leadership style is being utilized? A) Directive B) Supportive C) Participative D) Achievement E) Transformational 56) Which of the following outlines the duties of a job, its working conditions, and the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform it? A) Job advertisement B) Job specification C) Job description D) Job analysis E) Job report 57) Which of the following describes the skills, abilities, and qualifications required for a job? A) Staffing survey B) Advertising write up C) Job specification D) Employee analysis E) Replacement chart 58) Which of the following constitutes an illegal hiring practice under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? A) Asking someone about their availability because the position requires a 50-hour work week B) Establishing a diversity committee to help diverse employees connect with each other C) Asking a candidate whether or not he attends church, because it is important that candidates are available to work on Saturdays and Sundays D) Keeping track of how many males and females are in the organization E) Requiring an applicant to specify gender on an application 59) A is a check of a potential employee’s work record, academic record, credit history, and recommendations. A) personality profile B) background investigation C) performance appraisal D) character review E) survey 60) Labor unions were largely responsible for: A) establishing the Republican party. B) the basic structure of the federal income tax system. C) the passage of NAFTA. D) minimum wage laws and laws against child labor. E) all of the above. 61) Under which legal concept is it legal for a manager to discharge an employee without advance notice? A) Quid pro quo B) Affirmative action C) Employment at will D) Joint agreement E) Arbitration 62) What is the purpose of the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993? A) To extend the length of maternity leaves B) To allow employees to take a leave of absence with pay C) To allow employees to take a leave of absence for family or medical emergencies or when a child is born D) To increase the percentage of payroll spent on health care for workers E) To ensure financial security for all employees, regardless of circumstance 63) What is the advantage of promoting from within when filling an opening within the organization? A) Less need for a realistic job preview B) Increased influx of high quality employees C) Increased employee morale D) Increased turnover E) Increased diversity of employees 64) When a paycheck is calculated from the number of hours worked during the week times the hourly rate, what type of system is being used to pay employees? A) Gainsharing B) Salary C) Profit sharing D) Wage E) Incentive 65) Which refers to compensation other than wages and salaries and other incentive pay offered by a firm to its workers? A) Profit-sharing B) Gainsharing C) Benefits D) Pay-for-knowledge E) Variable 66) What do top executives often receive as incentives? A) Merit salary systems B) Workers' compensation insurance C) Salaries D) Stock options E) Wages 67) Which of the following types of training occurs while the employee is at his or her place of work? A) On-the-job training B) Vestibule training C) Off-site training D) Incentive training E) Remote training 68) A departmental manager is meeting with each of his subordinates to discuss how well each employee has done their job over the past year. What process is he involved in? A) Job description B) Labor negotiations C) Vestibule assessment D) Performance appraisal E) Financial remuneration 69) In addition to increased flexibility, why do organizations use contingent workers? A) There is less need for training. B) Contingent workers can replace knowledge workers. C) Contingent workers often represent a higher quality labor force. D) Contingent workers cost less. E) The organization simply cannot find full time workers. 70) What is the process by which union leaders and managers negotiate common terms and conditions of employment for the workers represented by unions? A) Striking B) Picketing C) Informational gathering D) Collective bargaining E) Compensation planning 71) What occurs when a neutral third party dictates a legally binding settlement between two sides that have agreed to submit to outside judgment? A) Mediation B) Arbitration C) Strikebreaker D) Impasse E) Picketing 72) Which term refers to a labor action in which employees temporarily walk off the job and refuse to work? A) Strike B) Lockout C) Boycott D) Mediation E) Bargaining 73) If negotiations fail, what can a company choose to use to prevent union employees from coming to work? A) Wildcat strike B) Lockout C) Strikebreaker D) Economic strike E) Bailout 74) In a union contract, future wage increases are often tied to the Consumer Price Index and provide for A) economic strikes. B) contract renegotiations. C) wage reopener clauses. D) pay tied to productivity. E) cost of living adjustments. 75) Harassment that created an intimidating, offensive work environment falls under the type of sexual harassment known as a(n): A) hostile work environment. B) quid pro quo. C) extroverted harassment. D) de jure harassment. E) unnecessary harassment.