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Hesi Final Study Questions: Med Surg II 100% verified 2024 LATEST UPDATE

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is begins to develop slurred speech, confusion, drowsiness, and a flapping tremor. With this evidence of impending hepatic coma, which diet can the nurse expect will be prescribed for this client? - 20 g of protein, 2000 calories A nurse concludes that the anemia that accompanies chronic kidney disease should be treated because it contributes to: - Chronic fatigue A client is scheduled to receive general anesthesia during an upcoming surgery. The nurse provides education about common side effects of general anesthesia. The nurse concludes that the teaching has been effective when the client states, "Immediately after surgery I may experience: - A sore throat." A client has surgery for the creation of burr holes after sustaining head trauma. An early clinical manifestation of meningeal irritation for which the nurse assesses the client is: - Kernig's sign What therapeutic effect should the nurse identify as the reason for administration of neomycin sulfate to a client before colon surgery? - Destroy intestinal bacteria A client newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis is concerned about fluctuations in physical condition and generalized weakness. When caring for this client it is most important for the nurse to plan to:

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Hesi Final Study Questions: Med Surg II
100% verified 2024 LATEST UPDATE

is begins to develop slurred speech, confusion, drowsiness, and a flapping tremor. With
this evidence of impending hepatic coma, which diet can the nurse expect will be
prescribed for this client? - 20 g of protein, 2000 calories
A nurse concludes that the anemia that accompanies chronic kidney disease should be
treated because it contributes to: - Chronic fatigue
A client is scheduled to receive general anesthesia during an upcoming surgery. The
nurse provides education about common side effects of general anesthesia. The nurse
concludes that the teaching has been effective when the client states, "Immediately
after surgery I may experience: - A sore throat."
A client has surgery for the creation of burr holes after sustaining head trauma. An early
clinical manifestation of meningeal irritation for which the nurse assesses the client is: -
Kernig's sign
What therapeutic effect should the nurse identify as the reason for administration of
neomycin sulfate to a client before colon surgery? - Destroy intestinal bacteria
A client newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis is concerned about fluctuations in
physical condition and generalized weakness. When caring for this client it is most
important for the nurse to plan to: - Space activities throughout the day
A client is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, and the anticholinesterase medication
pyridostigmine (Mestinon) is prescribed. When teaching the client about this medication,
the nurse explains that the desired effect is to increase: - Contraction of skeletal
muscles
A client with a history of a pulmonary embolus is to receive 3 mg of warfarin (Coumadin)
daily. The client has blood drawn twice weekly to ascertain that the international
normalized ratio (INR) stays within a therapeutic range. The nurse provides dietary
teaching. Which food selected by the client indicates that further teaching is necessary?
- Spinach salad
A client with advanced bone cancer is experiencing cachexia. The nurse discusses the
nutritional aspect of palliative care with the family. Why is it important to explain these
nutritional interventions to the family? - Enhance the quality of the client's life
When providing discharge teaching to a client who had a total hip replacement, the
nurse should instruct the client to avoid: - Sitting in a low chair
A client comes to the clinic for a physical and asks to be tested for acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which test should the nurse explain will be used
for the initial screening for AIDS? - Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which responses
indicate that the client is experiencing hyperglycemia? (Select all that apply.) - -
Polyuria
-Polydipsia

, Tuberculosis is confirmed and isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), and pyridoxine
(vitamin B6) are prescribed for a client. The client says, "I've never had to take so many
medicines for an infection before." What is the nurse's best reply? - "This type of
organism is difficult to destroy."
A nurse in a rehabilitation center teaches clients with quadriplegia to use an adaptive
wheelchair. Why is it important that the nurse provide this instruction? - It is unlikely
that the client will regain the ability to walk.
A male client has discharge from his penis. Gonorrhea is suspected. To obtain a
specimen for a culture, the nurse should: - Swab the drainage directly from the urethra
to obtain a specimen
A nurse teaches the signs of organ rejection to a client who had a kidney transplant.
What should be included in the education? - Elevated blood pressure
Which relationship does the nurse consider reflective of the relationship of naloxone
(Narcan) to morphine sulfate? - Protamine sulfate to parenteral heparin
On the first postoperative day following a thyroidectomy, a client tolerates a full-fluid
diet. This is changed to a soft diet on the second postoperative day. The client reports
having a sore throat when swallowing. What should the nurse do first? - Administer
analgesics as prescribed before meals
When caring for an anxious patient, the nurse should monitor for which signs of
hyperventilation? - Respiratory alkalosis
A nurse obtains daily stool specimens for a client with chronic bowel inflammation. The
nurse concludes that these stool examinations were prescribed to determine: - Occult
blood.
Which clinical indicator is the nurse most likely to identify when assessing a client with a
ruptured cerebral aneurysm? - Sudden severe headache
A nurse is evaluating a client's response to fluid replacement therapy. Which clinical
finding indicates adequate tissue perfusion to vital organs? - Urinary output of 30 mL
in an hour
In response to a client's question, the nurse explains the difference between partial-
thickness (second-degree) burns and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What
information about partial-thickness burns should the nurse include in the discussion? -
They are painful, reddened, and have blisters
A client with acute kidney failure is to receive peritoneal dialysis and asks why the
procedure is necessary. The nurse's best response is, "It: - Helps perform some of the
work usually done by the kidneys."
A client has a closed chest drainage system in place. To determine the amount of chest
tube drainage, the nurse should: - Refer to the date and time markings on the outside
of the collection chamber
A farmer seeks medical care for a large crusty patch of skin on the cheek. The client
states that even after using different remedies, it still bleeds easily and has not gotten
better. From the client's history, the nurse suspects skin cancer because the major
precipitating factor associated with skin cancer is: - Exposure to radiation
A nurse determines that a client in the acute phase of burns has eaten only a small
portion of each meal. Considering this finding, the nurse should assess the client for: -
Prolonged wound healing

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