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The National Board for Respiratory Care, Inc. Therapist Multiple-Choice SAE (Form 2020 B) INDIVIDUAL FEEDBACK REPORT

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The National Board for Respiratory Care, Inc. Therapist Multiple-Choice SAE (Form 2020 B) INDIVIDUAL FEEDBACK REPORT Finish date: 9/12/2019 6:35 PM Central Daylight Time Points: 102 of 140 Percent: 73% √ 1. A patient with a PBW of 55 kg (121 lb) is receiving VC, A/C ventilation. Ventilator settings and blood gas analysis results are: FIO2 0.70 Mandatory rate 14 VT 350 mL PEEP 5 cm H2O pH 7.35 PaCO2 35 mm Hg PaO2 40 mm Hg HCO3 - 19 mEq/L BE -6 mEq/L SO2 (calc) 74% A respiratory therapist should recommend A. changing to SIMV mode. increasing to 10 cm H2O PEEP. C. changing to 5 cm H2O CPAP. D. increasing to 400 mL VT. EXPLANATIONS (h) A. Changing to SIMV will not treat the hypoxemia. It may also cause a decrease in minute ventilation and adverse changes in the acid-base status. (c) B. The increase in PEEP will increase FRC, decrease the intrapulmonary shunt, and address the hypoxemia. (h) C. Changing to CPAP may decrease minute ventilation causing adverse changes in the acid-base status. (u) D. Increasing the tidal volume will further decrease the PaCO2. It will not significantly improve oxygenation. √ 2. When instructing a patient on the administration of umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta), which of the following is most important to emphasize? A. Gargle immediately after use. B. Inhale slowly with a breath hold. Breathe in fast and deep. D. Shake medication vigorously before use. EXPLANATIONS: B.√ C.√ (u) A. Umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta) is not an inhaled steroid and, thus, does not require gargling after use. (u) B. Umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta) is a DPI that requires rapid inhalation. (c) C. Breathing in fast and deep is the proper method of administration for umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta). (u) D. Umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta) is a DPI and does not require shaking before use. √ 3. Following placement of a tracheostomy tube for long-term mechanical ventilation, which of the following patient positions best prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia? A. prone B. Trendelenburg C. supine semi-Fowler EXPLANATIONS: (h) A. Prone positioning is contraindicated following tracheostomy placement. (h) B. Use of Trendelenburg positioning may increase the risk of aspiration. (u) C. A decreased incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia has been observed with an elevated head of bed as compared to supine. (c) D. Routine use of semi-Fowler positioning with the head of the bed elevated at an angle of 30-45 degrees has been shown to decrease rates of ventilator-associated pneumonia. √ 4. Which of the following is used to monitor the partial pressure of transcutaneous carbon dioxide? A. red-light absorption sensor B. electromechanical transducer C. infrared analyzer Stow-Severinghaus electrode EXPLANATIONS: (u) A. A red-light absorption sensor is used in a pulse oximeter. (u) B. An electromechanical transducer measures airway pressure. (u) C. An infrared analyzer is used in a capnometer. (c) D. A Stow-Severinghaus blood gas electrode is used in transcutaneous monitors. √ 5. An adult patient requires frequent blood sampling and medication administrations through an IV for 1 month. The preferred vascular access is a peripherally inserted central catheter. B. subclavian central vascular line. D.√ D.√ A.√ C. standard peripheral IV line. D. internal jugular catheter. EXPLANATIONS: (c) A. A PICC is the best choice for long-term IV access and allows for blood sampling. (u) B. A subclavian central vascular line is recommended for short-term use and should be removed as soon as feasible to avoid infection. (u) C. A standard peripheral IV line is not meant for long-term use. (u) D. An internal jugular catheter is recommended for short-term use and should be removed as soon as feasible to avoid infection. √ 6. A 170-cm (5-ft 7-in), 69-kg (152-lb) male with ARDS has the following ABG analysis results: pH 7.37 PCO2 43 mm Hg PO2 95 mm Hg HCO3 - 25 mEq/L BE -1 mEq/L SO2 (calc) 97% The patient is receiving VC, A/C ventilation with the following settings: FIO2 0.70 Mandatory rate 12 VT 450 mL PEEP 8 cm H2O Which of the following is most appropriate? Decrease the FIO2 to 0.60. B. Change the PEEP to 5 cm H2O. C. Increase the minute ventilation. D. Maintain the current settings. EXPLANATIONS: (c) A. Since the PaO2 is adequate, it is now appropriate to decrease the FIO2. (u) B. The PEEP needs to be maintained to prevent derecruitment of alveoli. (u) C. There is no indication for changing the minute ventilation. The patient's ventilation is appropriate.

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The National Board for Respiratory Care, Inc.
Therapist Multiple-Choice SAE (Form 2020 B) INDIVIDUAL
FEEDBACK REPORT



Finish date: 9/12/2019 6:35 PM Central Daylight Time
Points: 102 of 140
Percent: 73%

√ 1. A patient with a PBW of 55 kg (121 lb) is receiving VC, A/C ventilation. Ventilator settings and blood gas analysis results are:

FIO2 0.70

Mandatory rate 14

VT 350 mL

PEEP 5 cm H2O

pH 7.35

PaCO2 35 mm Hg

PaO2 40 mm Hg

HCO3- 19 mEq/L

BE -6 mEq/L

SO2 (calc) 74%


A respiratory therapist should recommend

A. changing to SIMV mode.

B.√ increasing to 10 cm H2O PEEP.

C. changing to 5 cm H2O CPAP. D.

increasing to 400 mL VT.


EXPLANATIONS

(h) A. Changing to SIMV will not treat the hypoxemia. It may also cause a decrease in minute ventilation and adverse
changes in the acid-base status.

(c) B. The increase in PEEP will increase FRC, decrease the intrapulmonary shunt, and address the hypoxemia.

(h) C. Changing to CPAP may decrease minute ventilation causing adverse changes in the acid-base status.
(u) D. Increasing the tidal volume will further decrease the PaCO 2. It will not significantly improve oxygenation.



√ 2. When instructing a patient on the administration of umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta), which of the following is most
important to emphasize?


A. Gargle immediately after use.

B. Inhale slowly with a breath hold.

C.√ Breathe in fast and deep.
D. Shake medication vigorously before use.

EXPLANATIONS:

,(u) A. Umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta) is not an inhaled steroid and, thus, does not require gargling after use.


(u) B. Umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta) is a DPI that requires rapid inhalation.
(c) C. Breathing in fast and deep is the proper method of administration for umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta).

(u) D. Umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta) is a DPI and does not require shaking before use.



√ 3. Following placement of a tracheostomy tube for long-term mechanical ventilation, which of the following patient positions
best prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia?


A. prone

B. Trendelenburg

C. supine

D.√ semi-Fowler


EXPLANATIONS:

(h) A. Prone positioning is contraindicated following tracheostomy placement.

(h) B. Use of Trendelenburg positioning may increase the risk of aspiration.

(u) C. A decreased incidence of ventilator-associated pneumonia has been observed with an elevated head of bed as
compared to supine.

(c) D. Routine use of semi-Fowler positioning with the head of the bed elevated at an angle of 30-45 degrees has been
shown to decrease rates of ventilator-associated pneumonia.



√ 4. Which of the following is used to monitor the partial pressure of transcutaneous carbon dioxide?


A. red-light absorption sensor

B. electromechanical transducer C. infrared analyzer

D.√ Stow-Severinghaus electrode


EXPLANATIONS:
(u) A. A red-light absorption sensor is used in a pulse oximeter.

(u) B. An electromechanical transducer measures airway pressure.

(u) C. An infrared analyzer is used in a capnometer.

(c) D. A Stow-Severinghaus blood gas electrode is used in transcutaneous monitors.




√ 5. An adult patient requires frequent blood sampling and medication administrations through an IV for 1 month. The
preferred vascular access is a


A.√ peripherally inserted central

catheter. B. subclavian central vascular line.

, C. standard peripheral IV line.

D. internal jugular catheter.


EXPLANATIONS:

(c) A. A PICC is the best choice for long-term IV access and allows for blood sampling.

(u) B. A subclavian central vascular line is recommended for short-term use and should be removed as soon as
feasible to avoid infection. (u) C. A standard peripheral IV line is not meant for long-term use.

(u) D. An internal jugular catheter is recommended for short-term use and should be removed as soon as feasible to
avoid infection.



√ 6. A 170-cm (5-ft 7-in), 69-kg (152-lb) male with ARDS has the following ABG analysis results:


pH 7.37
PCO2 43 mm Hg
PO2 95 mm Hg

HCO3- 25 mEq/L
BE -1 mEq/L
SO2 (calc) 97%


The patient is receiving VC, A/C ventilation with the following settings:


FIO2 0.70
Mandatory rate 12
VT 450 mL PEEP 8 cm
H2O


Which of the following is most appropriate?


A.√ Decrease the FIO2 to 0.60.
B. Change the PEEP to 5 cm H2O.

C. Increase the minute ventilation.
D. Maintain the current settings.

EXPLANATIONS:
(c) A. Since the PaO2 is adequate, it is now appropriate to decrease the FIO2.
(u) B. The PEEP needs to be maintained to prevent derecruitment of alveoli.
(u) C. There is no indication for changing the minute ventilation. The patient's ventilation is appropriate.


(u) D. The FIO2 needs to be decreased to minimize oxygen-induced lung injury.



√ 7. Following an emergent C-section, a 35 year old is receiving VC, A/C ventilation. The following pressure-volume loop
is observed:

, Which of the following ventilator settings should be adjusted?

A. PEEP

B. flow rate

C. tidal volume trigger sensitivity

D.√
EXPLANATIONS:

(u) A. Adjusting the PEEP is not indicated and does not address the dyssynchrony.

(u) B. A flow rate that is too low is represented by a scooped inspiratory flow curve. There are no indications to adjust
the flow rate.

(u) C. There are no indications that the tidal volume is inadequate. The patient's trigger sensitivity should be adjusted
so less negative force is needed to trigger a breath.

(c) D. The patient is having difficultly triggering the breath, which is shown by the significant negative force created
before the breath is delivered. The trigger should be adjusted to be more sensitive to improve the patient's ability to
trigger a breath.



√ 8. Which of the following techniques is preferred for a quadriplegic patient having difficulty expectorating secretions?


A. pursed lip breathing abdominal

B.√ thrust

C. PEP therapy

D. inspiratory muscle training
EXPLANATIONS:

(u) A. Pursed lip breathing is used as an expiratory maneuver to stabilize airways typically with COPD patients and not
as a cough assist.

(c) B. An abdominal thrust is used to assist patients with decreased respiratory muscle function, such as quadriplegics,
to more forcefully cough out secretions.

(u) C. PEP therapy is used by patients who can spontaneously take a deep breath and follow-up with a forced cough
effort.

(u) D. Inspiratory muscle training is used to enhance inspiratory muscle strength typically with COPD patients and not
for quadriplegic patients.



√ 9. A patient with a history of hypertension was awakened by cough and shortness of breath. He has fine inspiratory crackles
bilaterally. Which of the following should a respiratory therapist recommend?

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