NCCT PRACTICE EXAM LATEST VERSION 2024
WITH COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONELS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+
For how many years should a provider store medical records (select the least number of
years that maintains compliance with state and federal regulations)?
A. 15 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 20 years
Rationale: Federal and state regulations require a minimum storage time frame for
medical records. State regulations may require a longer or shorter time frame,
depending on the state. Every medical provider should routinely check state and federal
requirements to remain compliant. As of the date this question was submitted (2015), a
7 to 10 year time frame would meet all federal and state medical record storage
requirements.
Flow charts, progress notes, and narrative notation are all examples of
A. medical record charting styles.
B. patient documentation in a SOAP format.
C. recording patient information in a medical record.
D. patient chart filing systems
Rationale: Patient information can be recorded in the medical record in a variety of
ways. Progress notes, flow charts and narrative notation are all effective ways to
document a patient's medical information. The SOAP format is the documentation
system chosen by many physicians. S=Subjective patient interview information,
,O=Objective information such as vitals, lab values, etc., A=Assessment of the "S" and
"O" data, P=Plan for treatment or follow-up. Medical records of various styles are
generally kept in charts, which are filed according to a filing system.
When measuring oxygen saturation on a child breathing room air, with normal color,
and no signs of respiratory distress, the medical assistant obtains a reading of 79%.
Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take next?
A. supplement the child with oxygen per protocol
B. take a full set of vital signs
C. reposition the finger probe
D. notify the physician
Rationale: Oxygen saturation (O2 Sat or Pulse Ox) on a child with a structurally normal
heart should be >92% . Patient movement, poor probe attachment, or nail polish can
distort the sensor reading during monitoring. Always observe the child's condition first,
and machine reading 2nd when troubleshooting. O2 saturation should be obtained and
documented as part of a full set of vital signs for patients being evaluated for respiratory
conditions.
Which of the following is the best way to correct AC interference on an ECG?
A. Ask the patient not to move while performing the test.
B. Move the patient to a quiet room.
C. Check that the patient does not have a cell phone close by.
D. Offer the patient a blanket if she is cold.
Rationale: AC is alternating current interference and it can be caused by a nearby
electrical device (such as a cell phone). Patient movement (either voluntary or shivering
from the cold) can cause other artifact on an ECG, but not the same as AC interference.
Moving the patient to a quiet room would not alleviate AC interference.
Which of the following documents is also called an advanced directive?
A. subpoena
B. informed consent
,C. living will
D. assignment of benefits
Rationale: A living will is a formal document, written in advance, that gives health care
professionals instructions about the patient's medical wishes regarding end of life care,
and is the same as an advanced directive. Assignment of benefits refers to the patient's
wishes on who and where they want their money sent to, a subpoena is an order given
to someone who is supposed to go to court, and informed consent refers to a document
that a patient fills out which gives permission to the healthcare providers to perform
certain tasks or procedures.
The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for a patient following surgical
removal of their uterus. The medical term for this procedure is
A. amniocentesis.
B. oophorectomy.
C. uteroscopy.
D. hysterectomy
Rationale: The definition of a Hysterectomy is Hyster- = uterus, ectomy = surgical
removal of. An Oophorectomy is the surgical removal of an ovary or ovaries, an
Ureteroscopy is an examination of the upper urinary tract, and Amniocentesis is a test
used to determine whether an unborn baby has any genetic abnormalities.
When inspecting a patient's arm before performing a venipuncture, the most desirable
site appears to be the back of the hand. Which of the following venipuncture methods is
most appropriate in this situation?
A. butterfly needle
B. capillary puncture
C. needle and syringe
D. evacuated
Rationale: The best choice in this situation is to use a butterfly needle, a winged needle
with flexible tubing that is short in length. Butterfly needles are easier to insert into tiny,
fragile, and/or rolling surface veins close to the skin. If a butterfly is not available, a
, needle and syringe would be the next choice. The vacuum pressure of evacuated tubes
can collapse small or fragile veins such as those on the back of the hand. A capillary
puncture would be the last option here, and would be used in the instance of a failed
butterfly or syringe attempt (provided there are no other veins available).
A medical assistant is positioning a patient for sigmoidoscopy. Which of the following
positions would be appropriate for the procedure?
A. supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. lithotomy
D. Sims
Rationale: For a sigmoidoscopy, the patient will need to lie on the left side with the right
knee bent, which is also referred to as the Sims position. This allows the physician to
insert the sigmoidoscope through the anus to the colon to get a clear look at the area.
The lithotomy position is when the patient lies on their back with the thighs spread apart
and the hips and knees bent. This position is mostly used for vaginal examinations and
childbirth, and would not be the best position for a sigmoidoscopy. The Trendelenburg
position is when the patient lies flat on their back with the feet elevated higher than the
head by 15-30 degrees, and the supine position is achieved when the patient is lying flat
on their back with no part of the body elevated. The Trendelenburg and supine positions
would not typically be used for a sigmoidoscopy, because if the patient is lying on their
back it does not allow the physician to easily insert the sigmoidoscope into the anus to
get a clear view of the sigmoid colon.
An established patient who has Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is evaluated in
the medical office for hypertension. What is the importance of identifying the reason for
today's visit related to billing?
A. to assign a two-digit modifier
B. to assign a V code
C. to determine the primary diagnosis
WITH COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONELS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+
For how many years should a provider store medical records (select the least number of
years that maintains compliance with state and federal regulations)?
A. 15 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 20 years
Rationale: Federal and state regulations require a minimum storage time frame for
medical records. State regulations may require a longer or shorter time frame,
depending on the state. Every medical provider should routinely check state and federal
requirements to remain compliant. As of the date this question was submitted (2015), a
7 to 10 year time frame would meet all federal and state medical record storage
requirements.
Flow charts, progress notes, and narrative notation are all examples of
A. medical record charting styles.
B. patient documentation in a SOAP format.
C. recording patient information in a medical record.
D. patient chart filing systems
Rationale: Patient information can be recorded in the medical record in a variety of
ways. Progress notes, flow charts and narrative notation are all effective ways to
document a patient's medical information. The SOAP format is the documentation
system chosen by many physicians. S=Subjective patient interview information,
,O=Objective information such as vitals, lab values, etc., A=Assessment of the "S" and
"O" data, P=Plan for treatment or follow-up. Medical records of various styles are
generally kept in charts, which are filed according to a filing system.
When measuring oxygen saturation on a child breathing room air, with normal color,
and no signs of respiratory distress, the medical assistant obtains a reading of 79%.
Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take next?
A. supplement the child with oxygen per protocol
B. take a full set of vital signs
C. reposition the finger probe
D. notify the physician
Rationale: Oxygen saturation (O2 Sat or Pulse Ox) on a child with a structurally normal
heart should be >92% . Patient movement, poor probe attachment, or nail polish can
distort the sensor reading during monitoring. Always observe the child's condition first,
and machine reading 2nd when troubleshooting. O2 saturation should be obtained and
documented as part of a full set of vital signs for patients being evaluated for respiratory
conditions.
Which of the following is the best way to correct AC interference on an ECG?
A. Ask the patient not to move while performing the test.
B. Move the patient to a quiet room.
C. Check that the patient does not have a cell phone close by.
D. Offer the patient a blanket if she is cold.
Rationale: AC is alternating current interference and it can be caused by a nearby
electrical device (such as a cell phone). Patient movement (either voluntary or shivering
from the cold) can cause other artifact on an ECG, but not the same as AC interference.
Moving the patient to a quiet room would not alleviate AC interference.
Which of the following documents is also called an advanced directive?
A. subpoena
B. informed consent
,C. living will
D. assignment of benefits
Rationale: A living will is a formal document, written in advance, that gives health care
professionals instructions about the patient's medical wishes regarding end of life care,
and is the same as an advanced directive. Assignment of benefits refers to the patient's
wishes on who and where they want their money sent to, a subpoena is an order given
to someone who is supposed to go to court, and informed consent refers to a document
that a patient fills out which gives permission to the healthcare providers to perform
certain tasks or procedures.
The medical assistant schedules a follow-up appointment for a patient following surgical
removal of their uterus. The medical term for this procedure is
A. amniocentesis.
B. oophorectomy.
C. uteroscopy.
D. hysterectomy
Rationale: The definition of a Hysterectomy is Hyster- = uterus, ectomy = surgical
removal of. An Oophorectomy is the surgical removal of an ovary or ovaries, an
Ureteroscopy is an examination of the upper urinary tract, and Amniocentesis is a test
used to determine whether an unborn baby has any genetic abnormalities.
When inspecting a patient's arm before performing a venipuncture, the most desirable
site appears to be the back of the hand. Which of the following venipuncture methods is
most appropriate in this situation?
A. butterfly needle
B. capillary puncture
C. needle and syringe
D. evacuated
Rationale: The best choice in this situation is to use a butterfly needle, a winged needle
with flexible tubing that is short in length. Butterfly needles are easier to insert into tiny,
fragile, and/or rolling surface veins close to the skin. If a butterfly is not available, a
, needle and syringe would be the next choice. The vacuum pressure of evacuated tubes
can collapse small or fragile veins such as those on the back of the hand. A capillary
puncture would be the last option here, and would be used in the instance of a failed
butterfly or syringe attempt (provided there are no other veins available).
A medical assistant is positioning a patient for sigmoidoscopy. Which of the following
positions would be appropriate for the procedure?
A. supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. lithotomy
D. Sims
Rationale: For a sigmoidoscopy, the patient will need to lie on the left side with the right
knee bent, which is also referred to as the Sims position. This allows the physician to
insert the sigmoidoscope through the anus to the colon to get a clear look at the area.
The lithotomy position is when the patient lies on their back with the thighs spread apart
and the hips and knees bent. This position is mostly used for vaginal examinations and
childbirth, and would not be the best position for a sigmoidoscopy. The Trendelenburg
position is when the patient lies flat on their back with the feet elevated higher than the
head by 15-30 degrees, and the supine position is achieved when the patient is lying flat
on their back with no part of the body elevated. The Trendelenburg and supine positions
would not typically be used for a sigmoidoscopy, because if the patient is lying on their
back it does not allow the physician to easily insert the sigmoidoscope into the anus to
get a clear view of the sigmoid colon.
An established patient who has Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is evaluated in
the medical office for hypertension. What is the importance of identifying the reason for
today's visit related to billing?
A. to assign a two-digit modifier
B. to assign a V code
C. to determine the primary diagnosis
