Yr 4 Anaesthesia MCQs with 100% Complete Solutions

Yr 4 Anaesthesia MCQs with 100% Complete Solutions The triad of anaesthesia comprises A. Hypnosis, monitoring, and airway management B. Sedation, pain management and airway management C. Sedation, muscle relaxation and analgesia D. Hypnosis, analgesia and immobility -Answer-D What are the minimum requirements for effective surgical anaesthesia? A. An immobile surgical field with good analgesia B. An unaware and immobile patient C. Artificial ventilation and hypnosis D. Sedation and muscle relaxation -Answer-A How is anaesthesia usually induced in adults? A. Via inhalation of nitrous oxide B. Via a combination of IV and inhalation agents C. Via inhalation of volatile agents D. Via intravenous induction agents -Answer-D Which best describes general anaesthesia? A. A drug-induced deep stage of NREM sleep B. Progressive loss of protective neural reflexes C. A drug-induced reversible coma D. Arrest of the electroencephalogram (EEG) -Answer-C Which is normally the first step in preoperative care? A. Assessing the patient's airway B. Ensuring the patient has good analgesia C. Identifying the patient and taking a history D. Securing intravenous access -Answer-C How do patients emerge from general anaesthesia? A. The anaesthetic agent is discontinued and dissociates from the brain B. A specific antidote is given depending on what agent was used C. The anaesthetic agent is metabolised by the liver and excreted in urine D. Oxygen levels are increased to flush the agent out of the patient's lungs -Answer-A What is focus of clinical examination at the preoperative visit? A. Respiratory, cardiovascular, and airway B. Respiratory, cardiovascular and general examination C. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems D. Airway examination and fasting status -Answer-A The ASA grading for a well-controlled diabetic presenting for elective surgery is: A. Class II B. Class III C. Class I E D. Class II E -Answer-A The ASA grading is a predictor of: A. Postoperative complications B. Intraoperative complications C. Urgency of surgery D. Postoperative mortality -Answer-D How long does clear fluid take to clear the stomach? A. 1-2 hours B. 3 hours C. 4 hours D. 6 hours -Answer-A EMI 1: Consider the following five anaesthesia modalities, and choose as many as are necessary for the following situations: A. Hypnosis B. Sedation C. Immobility D. Analgesia E. Mechanical ventilation An emergency appendectomy: -Answer-A, C, D, E EMI 1: Consider the following five anaesthesia modalities, and choose as many as are necessary for the following situations: A. Hypnosis B. Sedation C. Immobility D. Analgesia E. Mechanical ventilation A Caesarian section under spinal anaesthesia: -Answer-C, D EMI 1: Consider the following five anaesthesia modalities, and choose as many as are necessary for the following situations: A. Hypnosis B. Sedation C. Immobility D. Analgesia E. Mechanical ventilation An anxious patient undergoing a CT scan: -Answer-B EMI 1: Consider the following five anaesthesia modalities, and choose as many as are necessary for the following situations: A. Hypnosis B. Sedation C. Immobility D. Analgesia E. Mechanical ventilation Drainage of a breast abscess under general anaesthesia: -Answer-A, C, D Why is use of the circle system advantageous? A. It is suitable for spontaneous ventilation at all ages B. Carbon dioxide rebreathing does not occur at low flows C. It humidifies gases and is cost-effective at low flows D. It provides automatic positive end-expiratory pressure -Answer-C Which monitor is most appropriate to confirm successful placement of an endotracheal tube? A. Pulse oximetry B. Capnography C. Peak inspiratory pressures D. Inspired oxygen concentration -Answer-B What is the function of an arterial line? A. Administration of drugs via infusion and a port for sampling for blood gas analysis B. A cardiac output monitor and indicator of the patient's central perfusion pressure C. Continuous infusion of specific drugs and accurate monitoring of blood pressure D. Continuous beat to beat blood pressure monitoring and a port for blood sampling - Answer-D The chief function of a central line is: A. For sampling venous blood for blood gas analysis B. As a port for infusion of various drugs C. For measuring the central venous pressure D. For large-bore venous access in an emergency -Answer-B What information does a pulse oximeter provide? A. Saturation of capillary haemoglobin and pulse rate B. Oxygen concentration of arterial blood and pulse pressure C. End-tidal carbon dioxide and respiratory rate D. Saturation of arterial haemoglobin and respiratory rate -Answer-A Which monitor is useful and commonly available in portable form when transferring spontaneously breathing patients from theatre to recovery? A. Blood pressure monitor B. Capnograph C. ECG D. Pulse oximeter -Answer-D Which components are essential in a modern anaesthesia machine? A. Carbon dioxide absorption and emergency oxygen flush B. Oxygen failure alarm and built-in backup liquid oxygen tank C. Oxygen analyser, oxygen flush and oxygen failure alarm D. Capnography, gas analysis and an automatic ventilator -Answer-C What best describes the use of the Mallampati Classification? A. A predictor of the difficulty of bag mask ventilation and intubation B. A bedside test to predict difficulty of bag-mask ventilation C. An estimation of the laryngoscopic view D. A bedside test to predict difficulty of intubation -Answer-D Which is the most critical skill required in managing a patient's airway in an emergency? A. A rapid sequence endotracheal intubation B. Maintaining an open airway by any reasonable means C. Providing the patient with 100% oxygen D. Protecting the airway from aspiration -Answer-B Large beards often cause difficulty with A. Passing of the laryngoscope B. Mask ventilation and intubation C. Bag mask ventilation D. Positioning for intubation -Answer-C What is the function of the ETT's cuff? A. To provide lubrication to assist insertion B. To seal off the airway after insertion C. As a depth of insertion guide D. To site the tube snugly on top of the glottis -Answer-B What is a secondary use of an LMA? A. As a backup in case of difficulty with intubation B. To temporarily protect the airway from aspiration C. To provide oxygenation before intubation D. For short surgeries in fasted patients -Answer-A Which patient requires intubation? A. A patient undergoing retinal surgery B. A patient having dental extraction under sedation C. A head injury patient with a GCS of 13/15 D. A patient having a lipoma removed on their arm under GA -Answer-A Which patient is most suitable for a laryngeal mask (LMA)? A. A patient with a Mallampati class IV B. A fasted patient undergoing a knee arthroscop