ABFAS BOARD EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2024 LATEST QUESTIONS AND DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+.

ABFAS BOARD EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2024 LATEST QUESTIONS AND DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. What is the main goal in the repair of syndesmotic injuries associated with ankle fractures? anatomic reduction of the fibula in the fibular notch. primary repair of the syndesmotic ligaments. primary repair of the deltoid ligament. anatomic reduction of the medial malleolar fracture. - ANSWER- Rationale: Although syndesmotic repair can assist in healing of the syndesmotic ligaments, deltoid ligaments, and medial malleolar fracture, anatomic reduction of the fibula in the fibular notch is the main goal in repairing the syndesmosis, which allows for secondary healing of syndesmotic ligaments while restoring the ankle mortise. Which complication is most likely to occur in an appropriately reduced and immobilized juvenile Tillaux fracture? nonunion. osteoarthritis. valgus ankle deformity. limb length discrepancy. - ANSWER- Subject Area: Complications, Rationale: As juvenile Tillaux fractures occur close to distal tibial physis closure, angular deformities and limb length discrepancies are less common. Post-traumatic osteoarthritis is the most likely of the answer choices. Which type of activity is initiated in the first few weeks after microfracture repair of a talar osteochondral defect? proprioceptive activities. plyometric exercises. range of motion exercises. weightbearing as tolerated. - ANSWER- ROM A 35-year-old male sustained a closed ankle injury in a motor vehicle accident. Based on the magnetic resonance image, what is the most likely diagnosis? osteoid osteoma. osteochondral lesion of the talus. osteomyelitis. avascular necrosis. - ANSWER- : AVN of the talus is very common after motor vehicle accidents. On a T2 weighted image, the MRI will typically display the double line sign which consists of a hypointense outer line ( sclerosis and fibrosis) and a hyperintense inner line (granulation tissue). The other options are not the most appropriate answer for this question based on the choices given. A 55-year-old female underwent a triple arthrodesis 10 months ago. Despite hardware removal, she has continued pain in the lateral midfoot with walking and standing. Computed tomography shows healed arthrodesis sites and no erosive changes. There is no concern for infection. What is the most likely cause of her pain? retained hardware. calcaneocuboid joint stiffness. osteomyelitis. extensor digitorum brevis muscle atrophy. - ANSWER- Calcaneocuboid joint stiffness is the best answer to this question stem. The stem stated that the hardware was removed, so is an unlikely cause of pain. Extensor digitorum brevis muscle atrophy does not correlate with lateral midfoot pain. The stem states there is no concern for infection so osteomyelitis is unlikely.