HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS FOR FINAL EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024
GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which
assessment findingindicates that the desired effect of the medication has been
achieved?
• Client denies recent episodes of angina.
• Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
• Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
• Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct - ✅✅Catapres acts as
a centrally- acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a reduction in
hypertension. Catapres does notaffect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate
desired outcomes of Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin
(LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is
receiving this medication. Which isthe best response for the nurse to provide?
• This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
• This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
• This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
• This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - ✅✅Unfractionated
,heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits
thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to
prevent postoperative venous
thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following
knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot
extension or further clot formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent
infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
P a g e 1 | 53
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FOR FINALEXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED
SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor
prescription, the nurse assesses the client.Which finding requires the most immediate
intervention?
• Heartburn.
• Headache.
• Constipation.
• Vomiting. Correct - ✅✅Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early
indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity,
this finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C)
are expected side effects of Lipitor
,A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information
is most importantfor the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. - ✅✅Spironolactone (Aldactone), an
aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium
should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modificationin heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or
increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses
over the next 24hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
P a g e 2 | 53
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FOR FINALEXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED
SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime. - ✅✅Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken
around-the-clock (A)so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby
decreasing the possibility of
, hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because of too much of the drug circulating
systemically at anyparticular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an around-the-
clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be given with food if GI distress is a problem, but
an around-the-clock schedule should still be
maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse
at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement
reflects the correct drug-specificteaching the nurse should provide to this client?
• Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms.
• Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a causeof cramping.
• Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be
an indication of aserious side effect. Correct
P a g e 3 | 53
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FOR FINALEXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED
SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
ANSWERS FOR FINAL EXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024
GUARANTEED SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which
assessment findingindicates that the desired effect of the medication has been
achieved?
• Client denies recent episodes of angina.
• Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
• Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
• Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct - ✅✅Catapres acts as
a centrally- acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a reduction in
hypertension. Catapres does notaffect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate
desired outcomes of Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin
(LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is
receiving this medication. Which isthe best response for the nurse to provide?
• This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
• This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
• This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
• This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. - ✅✅Unfractionated
,heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that inhibits
thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to
prevent postoperative venous
thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following
knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot
extension or further clot formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent
infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
P a g e 1 | 53
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FOR FINALEXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED
SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor
prescription, the nurse assesses the client.Which finding requires the most immediate
intervention?
• Heartburn.
• Headache.
• Constipation.
• Vomiting. Correct - ✅✅Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early
indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity,
this finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C)
are expected side effects of Lipitor
,A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information
is most importantfor the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. - ✅✅Spironolactone (Aldactone), an
aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium
should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modificationin heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or
increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses
over the next 24hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
P a g e 2 | 53
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FOR FINALEXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED
SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime. - ✅✅Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken
around-the-clock (A)so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby
decreasing the possibility of
, hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because of too much of the drug circulating
systemically at anyparticular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an around-the-
clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be given with food if GI distress is a problem, but
an around-the-clock schedule should still be
maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse
at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement
reflects the correct drug-specificteaching the nurse should provide to this client?
• Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms.
• Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a causeof cramping.
• Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be
an indication of aserious side effect. Correct
P a g e 3 | 53
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FOR FINALEXAM LATEST UPDATED 2024 GUARANTEED
SUCCESS FOR GRADE A+…
