WGU D027 Course Material Questions
and Answers, Verified Solution Over 200
QA
Which of the following is not a cellular function?
Combustion -
All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-
products of those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic
processes (i.e. combustion) are generally metaphorical.
What are mitochondria responsible for?
Energy production -
Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major
metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).
Which if the following can cause edema?
Increased lymphatic pressure -
Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement
and accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the
vascular results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in
the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema).
Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction?
Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -
The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after
the completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends
its life cycle and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the
separation of genetic materials to the opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by
telophase.
What indicates hypokalemia?
Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 -
Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with
some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and
other potential patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or
the administration of a supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to the
development of hypokalemia.
What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy?
Uterine enlargement due to pregnancy -
Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while
hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change
in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to
increased work or stress from exercise or increased cardiovascular pressures. When a
liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal solid organ capable of
regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the
uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in
preparation for the support of a fetus.
What regulates the sodium balance?
,Aldosterone -
Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the
kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion.
What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal?
Hypotonic -
In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the
extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic
states are a balanced state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic
states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF above normal.
When in excess, what do buffers absorb?
Hydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of
maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)
Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have?
pH below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that
the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.
What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides?
Translation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is
synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified through inheritance.
Creation is a term that does not apply in this context.
What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease?
50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of
each child being heterozygous affected is 50%.
Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease?
It affects both men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men
and women will be affected by it in equal measure.
What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific
point in time?
Prevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of
time divided by the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is
affected by the incidence rate and how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is
anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is the measure of a risk factor effect.
Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but
has a larger genetic component?
Get a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast
cancer are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.
Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process?
To destroy foreign, invasive microorganisms -
The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or invasive
,organisms. As a secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune response
processes of the body.
What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process?
Increased vascular permeability -
Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of
inflammation will result in the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema).
Previousquestion
In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells?
Bone marrow -
The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes,
reside to mature into B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to other
organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen, and thymus to enter their final stages of
differentiation and development.
Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to
recipient?
Passive acquired immunity -
Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system that
occur from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or exposure to
foreign antigens. Passive immunity is stabilized. Existing immune responses that are
present with or without simulation can arise or be created from oneself (innate) or
acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies).
What does T-cell activity cause in older adults?
Increased susceptibility for infection -
As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate responses
to pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease increases.
What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or
soaps also known as?
Irritant contact dermatitis -
Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a
manifestation of an innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic,
stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more systemic processes of the immune system
and vasculature.
Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type
viruses and a herald patch?
Pityriasis rosea -
Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally
associated with or caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of
foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.). Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated with
and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a herald patch.
What is a furuncle?
An infection of the hair follicle that extends to the surrounding tissue -
Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or larger
processes that require broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle, though uncomfortable to
painful, is a generally localized infection that is self-resolving or that requires local,
minor treatment.
, What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell carcinoma
(SCC)?
Actinic keratosis -
Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor lesion of
SCC
What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to?
Epithelial cells -
Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire thickness
of the epithelium into the basement membrane.
What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor?
Absence of normal tissue organization -
Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated, connected
via a well-organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors lack those
characteristics as well as normal tissue organization.
Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer?
Extreme exercise -
Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous cancers,
which can be prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and likely helps prevent
endometrial, breast, and other cancers as well.
Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin?
Wilms tumor -
Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The main causes
of liver cancer are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use. The main cause of
cervical cancer is HPV infection. Leukemia is caused by mutations to hematopoietic
stem cells.
Which of the following drugs is classified as hormonal treatment for breast
cancer?
Tamoxifen -
Lapatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Paclitaxil is an antimicrotubule agent. Rituximab
is a CD20-directed cytolytic monoclonal antibody. Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen
medication used in the treatment of estrogen-linked breast cancer.
Where do the cancers treated with glucocorticoids stem from?
Lymphoid tissue -
Glucocorticoids, along with other medications, are used to treat cancers of the lymphoid
tissue (lymphocytic leukemias, Hodgkin disease, non-Hodgkin lymphomas, and multiple
myeloma).
A 23-year-old woman comes in for prenatal counseling. While completing her
family history, she reports her brother has cystic fibrosis. She does not know if
she is a carrier. She asks if her children will be affected by the disease.
What is an accurate way to determine the likelihood of this patient's children
being affected?
A genetic or a carrier test -
Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that impacts the lungs and digestive system. It is
the result of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene mutation.
The disease occurs when an individual inherits the mutated gene from each parent.
When only one mutated gene is inherited, the individual is labeled a carrier.
and Answers, Verified Solution Over 200
QA
Which of the following is not a cellular function?
Combustion -
All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-
products of those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic
processes (i.e. combustion) are generally metaphorical.
What are mitochondria responsible for?
Energy production -
Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major
metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).
Which if the following can cause edema?
Increased lymphatic pressure -
Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement
and accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the
vascular results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in
the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema).
Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction?
Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -
The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after
the completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends
its life cycle and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the
separation of genetic materials to the opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by
telophase.
What indicates hypokalemia?
Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 -
Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with
some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and
other potential patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or
the administration of a supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to the
development of hypokalemia.
What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy?
Uterine enlargement due to pregnancy -
Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while
hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change
in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to
increased work or stress from exercise or increased cardiovascular pressures. When a
liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal solid organ capable of
regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the
uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in
preparation for the support of a fetus.
What regulates the sodium balance?
,Aldosterone -
Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the
kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion.
What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal?
Hypotonic -
In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the
extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic
states are a balanced state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic
states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF above normal.
When in excess, what do buffers absorb?
Hydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of
maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)
Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have?
pH below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that
the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.
What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides?
Translation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is
synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified through inheritance.
Creation is a term that does not apply in this context.
What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease?
50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of
each child being heterozygous affected is 50%.
Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease?
It affects both men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men
and women will be affected by it in equal measure.
What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific
point in time?
Prevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of
time divided by the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is
affected by the incidence rate and how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is
anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is the measure of a risk factor effect.
Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but
has a larger genetic component?
Get a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast
cancer are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.
Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process?
To destroy foreign, invasive microorganisms -
The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or invasive
,organisms. As a secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune response
processes of the body.
What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process?
Increased vascular permeability -
Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of
inflammation will result in the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema).
Previousquestion
In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells?
Bone marrow -
The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes,
reside to mature into B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to other
organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen, and thymus to enter their final stages of
differentiation and development.
Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to
recipient?
Passive acquired immunity -
Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system that
occur from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or exposure to
foreign antigens. Passive immunity is stabilized. Existing immune responses that are
present with or without simulation can arise or be created from oneself (innate) or
acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies).
What does T-cell activity cause in older adults?
Increased susceptibility for infection -
As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate responses
to pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease increases.
What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or
soaps also known as?
Irritant contact dermatitis -
Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a
manifestation of an innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic,
stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more systemic processes of the immune system
and vasculature.
Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type
viruses and a herald patch?
Pityriasis rosea -
Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally
associated with or caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of
foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.). Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated with
and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a herald patch.
What is a furuncle?
An infection of the hair follicle that extends to the surrounding tissue -
Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or larger
processes that require broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle, though uncomfortable to
painful, is a generally localized infection that is self-resolving or that requires local,
minor treatment.
, What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell carcinoma
(SCC)?
Actinic keratosis -
Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor lesion of
SCC
What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to?
Epithelial cells -
Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire thickness
of the epithelium into the basement membrane.
What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor?
Absence of normal tissue organization -
Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated, connected
via a well-organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors lack those
characteristics as well as normal tissue organization.
Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer?
Extreme exercise -
Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous cancers,
which can be prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and likely helps prevent
endometrial, breast, and other cancers as well.
Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin?
Wilms tumor -
Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The main causes
of liver cancer are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use. The main cause of
cervical cancer is HPV infection. Leukemia is caused by mutations to hematopoietic
stem cells.
Which of the following drugs is classified as hormonal treatment for breast
cancer?
Tamoxifen -
Lapatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Paclitaxil is an antimicrotubule agent. Rituximab
is a CD20-directed cytolytic monoclonal antibody. Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen
medication used in the treatment of estrogen-linked breast cancer.
Where do the cancers treated with glucocorticoids stem from?
Lymphoid tissue -
Glucocorticoids, along with other medications, are used to treat cancers of the lymphoid
tissue (lymphocytic leukemias, Hodgkin disease, non-Hodgkin lymphomas, and multiple
myeloma).
A 23-year-old woman comes in for prenatal counseling. While completing her
family history, she reports her brother has cystic fibrosis. She does not know if
she is a carrier. She asks if her children will be affected by the disease.
What is an accurate way to determine the likelihood of this patient's children
being affected?
A genetic or a carrier test -
Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that impacts the lungs and digestive system. It is
the result of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene mutation.
The disease occurs when an individual inherits the mutated gene from each parent.
When only one mutated gene is inherited, the individual is labeled a carrier.
