Straighterline Pharmacology102 Exam 1c (Already graded A )

Straighterline Pharmacology102 Exam 1c Question 1 Alice has been feeling breathless and has been experiencing a tightness in her chest. She makes gurgling sounds when she breathes. Dr. Pablo, a cardiologist, subjects Alice to a thorough medical examination and diagnoses her with pulmonary edema. Dr. Pablo attributes this condition to a defect in Alice's heart. Based on the information provided in this scenario, from which of the following cardiac conditions is Alice most likely suffering? Select one: a. Left-sided chronic heart failure b. Right-sided chronic heart failure c. Myocardial infarction d. Coronary artery disease Question 2 Dr. Calvin is giving a lecture on the properties of cardiac tissue. During the lecture, he states that the conduction tissue of the heart does not require any external stimulus to initiate its contractions. It has the ability to initiate its own electrical stimulation. To demonstrate this property, Dr. Calvin dissects a frog and places its heart in a petri dish with Ringer's solution. He then asks his students to observe how the frog's heart continues to beat without any external stimulation. Based on the information provided in this scenario, which property of the heart is Dr. Calvin trying to demonstrate? Select one: a. Elasticity b. Autorhythmicity c. Contractility d. Rigidity Question 3 During the “fight or flight” reaction, sympathetic nerves become active and release _____. Select one: a. serotonin b. gamma-aminobutyric acid c. norepinephrine d. acetylcholine Question 4 Parasympathetic nerves release acetylcholine to _____. Select one: a. drastically decrease the activities of the SA node and the myocardium b. increase the activities of the AV node and the SA node c. decrease the activities of the SA node and the AV node d. drastically increase the activities of the myocardium and the Purkinje fibers Question 5 Which of the following accurately describes the mechanism of action of digoxin? Select one: a. Digoxin stimulates Na/K ATPase. Stimulation of Na/K ATPase increases intracellular concentration of Na ions. Increased intracellular Na decreases the activity of the Na/Ca exchanger and allows intracellular Ca concentrations to increase. Increased intracellular Ca increases the formation of actinomyosin and increases the force of myocardial contractions. b. Digoxin binds to and inhibits Na/K ATPase. Inhibition of Na/K ATPase decreases intracellular concentration of Na ions. Decreased intracellular Na increases the activity of the Na/Ca exchanger and allows intracellular Ca concentrations to decrease. Decreased intracellular Ca increases the formation of actinomyosin and increases the force of myocardial contractions. c. Digoxin binds to and inhibits Na/K ATPase. Inhibition of Na/K ATPase increases intracellular concentration of Na ions. Increased intracellular Na decreases the activity of the Na/Ca exchanger and allows intracellular Ca concentrations to increase. Increased intracellular Ca increases the formation of actinomyosin and increases the force of myocardial contractions. d. None of the above are correct. Question 6 Identify the main therapeutic effect of diuretic agents. Select one: a. The elimination of excess potassium and calcium by the kidneys b. The elimination of excess sodium and water by the kidneys c. The elimination of excess renin and glucose by the kidneys d. The elimination of excess aldosterone and serotonin by the kidneys Question 7 Which of the following diuretic agents has the longest duration of action? Select one: a. Spironolactone (Aldactone) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) d. Amiloride (Midamor) Question 8 Explain the difference between hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia. Select one: a. Hyperkalemia refers to low serum potassium, and hypercalcemia refers to high serum calcium. b. Hypercalcemia refers to high serum potassium, and hyperkalemia refers to high serum calcium. c. Hyperkalemia refers to high serum potassium, and hypercalcemia refers to high serum calcium. d. Hyperkalemia refers to high serum potassium, and hypercalcemia refers to low serum calcium. Question 9 Which of the following drugs is preferred for the treatment of supraventricular tachycardia? Select one: a. Verapamil b. Atropine c. Amiodarone d. Lidocaine Question 10 Which of the following ions plays a major role in bringing about myocardial contraction during Phase 2 of the cardiac action potential? Select one: a. Sodium ions b. Calcium ions c. Magnesium ions d. Chloride ions Question 11 Of the Class 1A antiarrhythmics, procainamide is favored over quinidine because procainamide: Select one: a. is a natural product, whereas quinidine is not. b. shows cardiac depressant activity at a much lower dose than quinidine does. c. produces less anticholinergic and alpha-blocking actions than quinidine does. d. exhibits more cholinergic activity than quinidine does. Question 12 Which of the following statements is true of antiarrhythmic drugs? Select one: a. Antiarrhythmic drugs that decrease the duration of Phase 0 of the cardiac action potential are the most effective therapeutically. b. Most antiarrhythmic drugs exert their major antiarrhythmic action on a specific phase of the action potential. c. Very few antiarrhythmic drugs have the potential to make any existing arrhythmia worse. d. Antiarrhythmic drugs that reduce the durations of Phases 1–3 of the cardiac action potential produce effective antiarrhythmic actions. Question 13 While Kendall is taking a stroll in a park near his house, his chest starts hurting. Assuming that Kendall is carrying the appropriate medication for his condition, which of the following routes of administration is he most likely to use? Select one: a. Sublingual b. Oral c. Transdermal d. Intravenous Question 14 Which of the following is true of nitroglycerin ointment? Select one: a. It has an onset of action of about 2 to 5 minutes. b. It is used sublingually to relieve intense pain during attacks of angina. c. It has a duration of action of about 1 to 2 hours. d. It is applied topically to an area of the chest and absorption occurs through the skin. Question 15 Which of the following is not an adverse effect of nitrates? Select one: a. Bradycardia b. Cutaneous flushing c. Fainting d. Headache Question 16 Identify the mechanism of action of the calcium channel blockers in the treatment of angina and coronary artery disease. Select one: a. Prevention of influx of calcium ions into vascular smooth muscle b. Increase in blood pressure to increase calcium ion concentration in blood c. Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle d. Reversal of the effects of sympathetic activation Question 17 Dr. Torres is treating a patient with glaucoma. She considers using a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor to produce diuresis. Dr. Torres should reconsider her choice of diuretic if the patient: Select one: a. has acute mountain sickness. b. has an edema. c. is hyponatremic. d. is hypokalemic. Question 18 _____ is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that continues to produce diuresis even in the presence of alkalosis. Select one: a. Mannitol b. Chlorothiazide c. Acetazolamide d. Isosorbide Question 19 Dr. Jones is treating a patient with chronic edema. He decides to use mannitol to treat the patient. Which of the following statements, if true, would make mannitol the wrong choice for this patient? Select one: a. The chronic edema is a consequence of a skin infection. b. The chronic edema is a consequence of intracranial bleeding. c. The patient is suffering from an imbalance in her electrolyte levels. d. The patient has low levels of sodium in her blood. Question 20 The filtration of substances from the blood into the nephrons occurs in the: Select one: a. nephron loop. b. collecting duct. c. proximal convoluted tubule. d. glomerulus. Question 21 Hydrochlorothiazide and _____ produce the same pharmacological action in the renal tubules, even though they are not chemically related. Select one: a. mannitol b. indapamide c. methazolamide d. glycerin Feedback The correct answer is: indapamide Question 22 Identify the definition of the physiological factor known as cardiac output that determines blood pressure. Select one: a. Cardiac output is the amount of blood that is pumped out of the heart per minute. b. Cardiac output is the friction that the arterioles have against the flow of blood. c. Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped per heartbeat. d. None of these are correct. Question 23 Which of the following angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) possesses the shortest plasma half-life and duration of action and is administered two to three times daily? Select one: a. Quinapril (Accupril) b. Captopril (Capoten) c. Losartan (Cozaar) d. Valsartan (Diovan) Question 24 Which of the following statements is true of the adverse-effects of thiazide and loop diuretics? Select one: a. Thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the synthesis of renin. b. Thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the metabolism of sodium. c. Thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the renal excretion of uric acid. d. None of these are correct. Question 25 Use the recommended dose (3 mcg/kg/min) to determine the appropriate dose of sodium nitroprusside that would be administered by slow intravenous infusion to a patient who weighs 242 pounds. Select one: a. 240 mcg/kg/min b. 180 mcg/kg/min c. 280 mcg/kg/min d. 330 mcg/kg/min