Straighterline Pharmacology102 Exam 2 (Already graded A )

Straighterline Pharmacology102 Exam 2 Question 1 An advantage of the LMW heparins over standard heparin is that: Select one: a. their bioavailability is almost complete following subcutaneous administration. b. they are less effective at binding active factor X. c. they seldom interfere with the coagulation cascade but can produce the same spectrum of interference as standard heparin. d. they can be administered orally. Question 2 The primary reason heparin cannot be administered orally is that: Select one: a. the mucopolysaccharide is too large to be absorbed in the intestines. b. the mucopolysaccharide would be destroyed by gastric acid in the stomach. c. the peptide is too large to be absorbed in the intestines. d. the peptide would be destroyed by gastric acid in the stomach. Question 3 The preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy is: Select one: a. heparin. b. warfarin. c. streptokinase. d. enoxaparin. Question 4 In the context of drug interactions, identify the true statement about grapefruit juice. Select one: a. Grapefruit juice interacts only with drugs that are administered orally. b. Atorvastatin, lovastatin, and simvastatin are not affected by grapefruit juice. c. Grapefruit juice can significantly increase drug metabolism at the intestinal wall. d. Taking medication in the presence of grapefruit juice significantly reduces the bioavailability of the medication. Question 5 Cholesterol is considered to be a critical substrate for the body because of its importance in building all of the following except _____. Select one: a. androgens b. glucocorticoids c. amino acids d. aldosterone Question 6 Which of the following is true of how is anemia caused? Select one: a. Anemia may be caused by a deficiency in the amount of hemoglobin that occurs when the number of circulating red blood cells decreases. b. Anemia may be caused by excessive blood loss or by an increase in the destruction of red blood cells (RBCs). c. Anemia may be caused by a decrease in the production of RBCs, which reduces the amount of circulating hemoglobin. d. All of these statements are correct. Question 7 _____ has the longest half-life of all erythropoietin stimulating agents (ESAs). Select one: a. Aranesp b. Epogen c. MIRCERA d. Procrit Question 8 David works as a health-care professional at Silver Oak Nursing Home. He is instructed to tend to Alisha Pavel, an undernutritioned patient who has been admitted at the nursing home for treatment. Which of the following instructions should David give Alisha when she is taking her oral hematinics? Select one: a. Do not take the supplements on an empty stomach. b. Chew or crush the supplements prior to swallowing. c. Take liquid iron preparations with juice or water. d. Always take antacids simultaneously with oral iron supplements. Question 9 In the context of treating iron deficiency, which of the following is true of ferumoxytol (Feraheme)? Select one: a. Feraheme is a novel iron product that is supplied as capsules for oral administration. b. Feraheme is specifically formulated for iron deficiency anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease. c. Feraheme should be administered as a diluted intravenous injection. d. Feraheme should only be used in patients for whom gastrointestinal (GI) absorption is impaired. Question 10 What causes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? Select one: a. Arthritis and chronic fatigue syndrome b. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis c. Nephritis and chronic viral hepatitis d. Synovitis and chronic esophagitis Question 11 Use the mechanism of action of the corticosteroids to determine the physiological action that results from their administration. Select one: a. Corticosteroids inhibit the production of allergic antibodies. b. Corticosteroids inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells. c. Corticosteroids inhibit the activity of inflammatory cells. d. All of these are correct. Question 12 Select the function of the eosinophilic chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis as it relates to asthma. Select one: a. Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to stimulate the action of arachidonic acid. b. Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to attract eosinophils to the site of cell injury or irritation in the lining of the respiratory tract in asthma. c. Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to stimulate the action of the prostaglandins. d. None of these are correct. Question 13 Famotidine is available as over-the-counter 10-mg tablets. If Kayla takes one tablet every 12 hours over a period of four days. What is the total dosage of famotidine administered to Kayla? Select one: a. 80 mg b. 40 mg c. 120 mg d. 48 mg Question 14 Omeprazole works by _____. Select one: a. inhibiting a hydrogen–potassium pump in mucosal cells b. inhibiting a sodium–potassium pump in mucosal cells c. inhibiting a hydrogen–potassium pump in parietal cells d. inhibiting a sodium–potassium pump in parietal cells Question 15 What are the two types of receptor antagonists that are used as antiemetics? Select one: a. Serotonin 5-HT3 and NK1 b. Serotonin 5-HT2 and H1 c. D2 and M1 d. H1 and M Question 16 Gastric juices are released during the gastric phase when the _____. Select one: a. chyme or partially digested foods enter the intestine. b. adrenergic receptors on parietal cells are stimulated. c. brain receives sensory input. d. stomach distends. Carter consults a doctor as he is suffering from diarrhea. He informs the doctor that he has recently been diagnosed with glaucoma. The doctor should avoid prescribing an anticholinergic to Carter because: Select one: a. it leads to irregularly dilated lymphatic channels in the bulbar conjunctiva. b. it may increase intraocular pressure by reducing anterior chamber drainage. c. it inhibits the production of anti-inflammatory cytokine on the ocular surface. d. it results in malignant epithelial lesions Question 18 Which of the following drugs is a serotonin receptor antagonist? Select one: a. Atropine b. Granisetron c. Loperamide d. Diphenoxylate Question 19 Daniel is diagnosed with cancer and is undergoing chemotherapy. He is suffering from bouts of vomiting, usually after the chemotherapy sessions. Which of the following drugs should Daniel's doctor prescribe for the vomiting? Select one: a. Diphenoxylate b. Ondansetron c. Loperamide d. Polycarbophil Question 20 Which of the following is associated with red blood cell production? Select one: a. Cholecystokinin b. Erythropoietin c. Gastrin d. Prolactin Question 21 A lack of thyroid hormone production in infancy results in: Select one: a. dwarfism. b. cretinism. c. acromegaly. d. candidemia. Question 22 The hormones of the anterior lobe that control the activities of the other endocrine glands are known as _____ hormones. Select one: a. tropic b. source c. inter d. counter Question 23 The process of gluconeogenesis primarily occurs in _____. Select one: a. the cortex of the kidneys b. the liver c. skeletal muscles d. bone marrow Question 24 Identify an adverse effect of glucocorticoids. Select one: a. Decrease in sweating b. Decrease in appetite c. Weight loss d. Restlessness Question 25 As a healthcare professional, which of the following guidelines will you have to bear in mind while counseling patients who are receiving steroid therapy? Select one: a. Single steroid doses should be taken before 9 AM to allow distribution of drug to mimic diurnal levels without suppressing available adrenocortical activity. b. Patients receiving high-dose or long-term steroid therapy should not discontinue the steroids without the supervision of the prescribing physician to avoid precipitating symptoms of withdrawal. c. Diabetics may have an increased blood glucose concentration requiring dose adjustment in insulin or oral antidiabetic drugs. d. All of these statements are correct.