NSG 6420 Week 4 Quiz

NSG 6420 Week 4 Quiz Question 1 (2 points) A patient comes to a clinic for an annual visit. He has a history of Type 2 DM. His lab work today indicates creatinine of 1.6 (0.6–1.5). Last year, his BP was 138/80 in both arms. Today, his BP is 150/80 in both arms. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention? Question 1 options: Question 2 (2 points) A seventy-eight-year-old African American woman presents to your office as a new patient. She complains of headache and dizziness. Her PMH is significant for HTN. She states, "I have been taking HCTZ for a long time." Her temperature is normal. BP 190/100, HR 86, RR 16. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to assist in determining how to treat her current symptoms? Question 2 options: Perform a fundoscopic exam of her eyes. Perform a monofilament test on her feet. Order an echocardiogram for the next week. Question 3 (2 points) A seventy-eight-year-old woman comes to see you for her annual visit. She has a history of osteoarthritis and GERD. She comes in today for her annual visit. Her BP is 148/88. Last year, her BP was 140/80 and you had advised a 2-gram sodium diet and exercise. She states that she has been faithfully following your instructions. Which of the following would be the most appropriate management strategy for this patient? Question 3 options: Praise her for her efforts and tell her to keep up the good work Start her on HCTZ 50 mg daily Start her on hydralazine 25 mg daily Advise her that she needs to follow a strict 1.5 gram sodium diet Question 4 (2 points) A hypertensive middle-aged man has been recently diagnosed with mild renal insufficiency. He has been on lisinopril (Accupril) for many years. Which of the following laboratory values should be carefully monitored? Question 4 options: