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PHTLS Pre Post Test 9th Study Guide Rated A

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PHTLS Pre & Post Test 9th Study Guide Rated A+ The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both temporarily and permanently, is known as: A. Conization B. Cavitation C. Crepitation D. Contusion The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due to energy exchange is: A. Mass of the bodies involved B. Velocity of the bodies involved C. Density of the tissues involved D. Surface area of the impact involved In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as Ringer's, are preferred because: A. The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders B. These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance volume C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W D. Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline for determining a critical fall? A. 3 times the height of the patient B. 2 times the height of the patient C. 5 times the height of the patient D. 1 ½ times the height of the patient The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are squeezed and may rupture is called the __________ phase. A. Tertiary phase B. Quaternary phase C. Secondary phase D. Primary phase During the primary survey and management of a trauma patient, the E in ABCDE stands for _________? A. Edema B. Eyes & ears C. Expose/Environment D. Electrical therapy The time in which surgical intervention can make a difference in patient outcome is the __________? A. Golden period B. Golden time C. Golden era D. Golden minutes In the absence of extenuating circumstances, the maximum amount of time it should take to identify and manage immediate threats to life, prepare the patient for transport and begin transport is _________? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes In which of the following situations is the use of a short spinal immobilization device indicated? A. 28 year old male, unrestrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake, asks repeatedly what happened, complains of a headache, has a hematoma on his forehead. BP 122/84, HR 92, VR 20. B. 40 year old female who was pushed down a flight of stairs and is lying prone on the landing between two flights of stairs, complaining of back pain. BP 118/78, HR 100, VR 20. C. 17 year old female, restrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake, pale and diaphoretic, complains of upper right quadrant abdominal pain. BP 100/70, HR 108, VR 20. D. None of the above Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver of a vehicle that has been involved in a frontal impact with a concrete bridge abutment. The patient is awake, but has difficulty answering questions due to shortness of breath. His ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. Of the following choices, when is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked? A. As soon as he is removed from the vehicle B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle C. As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard D. Enroute to the trauma center Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult? A. Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute B. Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute C. Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube placement? A. Pulse oximetry B. End-tidal capnometry C. Syringe aspiration D. None of the above When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung inflation time, in seconds, is: A. 1:4 B. 1:5 C. 1:2 D. 2:2 Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually triggered oxygen powered device for ventilation? A. Gastric distention B. Pneumothorax C. Inability to feel lung compliance D. All of the above Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill? A. Needle cricothyroidotomy B. Endotracheal intubation C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Retrograde endotracheal intubation Pericardial tamponade is most likely to occur in which of the following situations? A. Stab wound to the chest B. Fall from a height C. Frontal impact vehicle crash D. Gunshot wound to the chest Which of the following is the preferred site for needle decompression of a tension pneumothorax? A. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over the top of the 5th rib B. 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line, just below the 4th rib C. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just over top of the 3rd rib D. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just below the 2nd rib Which of the following is the mechanism by which pulmonary contusion interferes with oxygenation? A. Inability to generate negative intrapleural pressure B. Decrease in vital capacity due to collapse of the flail segment C. Increased intrathoracic pressure D. Blood and fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lung Your patient is a 55 year old male who was struck in the right side of the chest with a piece of steel pipe. He presents with uncooperative behavior, his skin is pale and moist, the ventilatory rate is 32, there is a weak radial pulse of 112, and breath sounds are decreased on the right side. The trachea is midline and jugular veins are flat while the patient is supine. There is isolated crepitus over the 4th and 5th ribs in the midaxillary line on the patient's right side. Based on the mechanism of injury and the assessment findings, which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's signs and symptoms? A. Tension pneumothorax B. Simple pneumothorax C. Pulmonary contusion D. Hemothorax Deterioration of ventilation and oxygenation after inflation of a PASG in a patient who has sustained a high-pressure compression injury of the abdomen, such as a sudden deceleration with the lap belt placed across the abdomen, most likely represents which of the following injuries? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Ruptured diaphragm C. Ruptured esophagus D. "Paper bag" syndrome of the lungs Which of the following is NOT a component of the Fick Principle? A. Adequate number of platelets in the blood B. Oxygenation of red blood cells C. Transportation of red blood cells to the tissues of the body D. Off-loading oxygen from the red blood cells to the tissues One of the earliest signs of hypovolemic shock is: A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. Anxiety D. Reduced urine output Which of the following characterizes the washout phase of shock? A. Systemic acidosis B. Localized tissue acidosis C. Edema D. Reduced capillary blood flow A trauma patient who has fallen 20 feet from an apartment balcony is alert with warm, dry, pink skin, with normal capillary refilling time to the lower extremities, and is hypotensive. The upper extremities are cool, pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following injuries should be suspected? A. Aortic dissection B. Liver laceration C. Fractured pelvis D. Spinal cord injury Which of the following is a limitation of prehospital fluid resuscitation of the patient in hemorrhagic shock? A. Inability of fluids to carry oxygen B. Pulmonary edema C. Increased hemorrhage D. All of the above Which of the following statements regarding signs of intraabdominal injury is NOT true? A. Fresh blood in the abdominal cavity does not cause signs of peritonitis B. A significant amount of blood loss occurs before abdominal distention can be noticed C. Substantial intraabdominal hemorrhage always causes tenderness and abdominal rigidity D. Signs and symptoms of shock greater than can be explained by other injuries is a reliable indicator of intraabdominal injury Which of the following assessment techniques is least useful in the prehospital assessment of the patient with suspected intraabdominal trauma? A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Inspection D. Scene assessment Pregnant trauma patients should be placed on the left side because: A. This prevents seizures due to eclampsia B. This prevents abruption of the placenta C. This prevents compression of the vena cava D. This is the best way to auscultate fetal heart tones Survival of the fetus in a trauma situation is most dependent upon which of the following factors? A. Gestational age of the fetus B. Prenatal care C. Immediate cesarean section D. Good resuscitation of the mother A patient struck in the back of the head with a baseball bat may sustain a cerebral contusion to which area of the brain? A. Frontal and occipital B. Occipital C. Parietal D. Frontal

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PHTLS Pre & Post Test 9th Study Guide Rated A+

1). The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both temporarily and
permanently, is known as:

a. conization
b. cavitation
c. crepitation
d. contusion

 Ans: B. Cavitation


2). The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due to energy
exchange is:

a. mass of the bodies involved
b. velocity of the bodies involved
c. density of the tissues involved
d. surface area of the impact involved

 Ans: B. Velocity of the bodies involved


3). In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as ringer's, are preferred
because:

a. the protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders
b. these fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance volume
c. these solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as d5w
d. their ph enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues

 Ans: C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions,
such as D5W


4). With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline for determining a
critical fall?

a. 3 times the height of the patient
b. 2 times the height of the patient
c. 5 times the height of the patient
d. 1 ½ times the height of the patient



PaperStoc.com Page 1 of 19

,  Ans: A. 3 times the height of the patient


5). The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are squeezed and may rupture
is called the __________ phase.

a. tertiary phase
b. quaternary phase
c. secondary phase
d. primary phase

 Ans: D. Primary phase


6). During the primary survey and management of a trauma patient, the e in abcde stands for
_________?

a. edema
b. eyes & ears
c. expose/environment
d. electrical therapy

 Ans: C. Expose/Environment


7). The time in which surgical intervention can make a difference in patient outcome is the
__________?

a. golden period
b. golden time
c. golden era
d. golden minutes

 Ans: A. Golden period (hour)




PaperStoc.com Page 2 of 19

, 8). In the absence of extenuating circumstances, the maximum amount of time it should take
to identify and manage immediate threats to life, prepare the patient for transport and begin
transport is _________?

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 30 minutes

 Ans: B. 10 minutes


9). In which of the following situations is the use of a short spinal immobilization device
indicated?

a. 28 year old male, unrestrained driver in a frontal impact crash. awake, asks repeatedly
what happened, complains of a headache, has a hematoma on his forehead. bp 122/84, hr
92, vr 20.
b. 40 year old female who was pushed down a flight of stairs and is lying prone on the
landing between two flights of stairs, complaining of back pain. bp 118/78, hr 100, vr 20.
c. 17 year old female, restrained driver in a frontal impact crash. awake, pale and
diaphoretic, complains of upper right quadrant abdominal pain. bp 100/70, hr 108, vr 20. d.
none of the above

 Ans: D. None of the above


10). Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver of a vehicle that has been involved in a
frontal impact with a concrete bridge abutment. the patient is awake, but has difficulty
answering questions due to shortness of breath. his ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. of the
following choices, when is the first time the patient's breath sounds should be checked?

a. as soon as he is removed from the vehicle
b. prior to being removed from the vehicle
c. as soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard
d. enroute to the trauma center

 Ans: B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle


11). Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult?

a. tidal volume 100 ml, ventilatory rate 40/minute
b. tidal volume 500 ml, ventilatory rate 8/minute
c. tidal volume 300 ml, ventilatory rate 16/minute
d. tidal volume 600 ml, ventilatory rate 12/minute




PaperStoc.com Page 3 of 19

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