Labor & Delivery Saunders NCLEX questions And Answers 100% Verified

Labor & Delivery Saunders NCLEX questions And Answers 100% Verified The nurse in a maternity unit is reviewing the clients' records. Which client would the nurse identify as being at the most risk for developing disseminated intravascular coagulation? 1. A primigravida with mild preeclampsia 2. A primigravida who delivered a 10-lb infant 3 hours ago 3. A gravida II who has just been diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome 4. A gravida IV who delivered 8 hours ago and has lost 500 mL of blood - answer3 In a pregnant client, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition in which the clotting cascade is activated, resulting in the formation of clots in the microcirculation. Dead fetus syndrome is considered a risk factor for DIC. Severe preeclampsia is considered a risk factor for DIC; a mild case is not. Delivering a large newborn is not considered a risk factor for DIC. Hemorrhage is a risk factor for DIC; however, a loss of 500 mL is not considered hemorrhage. he nurse is caring for a client in labor. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is beginning the second stage of labor? 1. The contractions are regular. 2. The membranes have ruptured. 3. The cervix is dilated completely. 4. The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid. - answer3. The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is dilated completely and ends with birth of the neonate. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not specific assessment findings of the second stage of labor and occur in stage 1. The nurse in the labor room is caring for a client in the active stage of the first phase of labor. The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. What is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Administer oxygen via face mask. 2. Place the mother in a supine position. 3. Increase the rate of the oxytocin (Pitocin) intravenous infusion. 4. Document the findings and continue to monitor the fetal patterns. - answer1 Late decelerations are due to uteroplacental insufficiency and occur because of decreased blood flow and oxygen to the fetus during the uterine contractions. Hypoxemia results; oxygen at 8 to 10 L/minute via face mask is necessary. The supine position is avoided because it decreases uterine blood flow to the fetus. The client should be turned onto her side to displace pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava. An intravenous oxytocin infusion is discontinued when a late deceleration is noted. The oxytocin would cause further hypoxemia because of increased uteroplacental insufficiency resulting from stimulation of contractions by this medication. Although the nurse would document the occurrence, option 4 would delay necessary treatment. The nurse is performing an assessment of a client who is scheduled for a cesarean delivery. Which assessment finding would indicate the need to contact the health care provider? 1. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dL 2. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats/minute 3. Maternal pulse rate of 85 beats/minute 4. White blood cell count of 12,000 cells/mm3 - answer2 A normal fetal heart rate is 110 to 160 beats/minute. A fetal heart rate of 180 beats/minute could indicate fetal distress and would warrant immediate notification of the HCP. By full term, a normal maternal hemoglobin range is 11 to 13 g/dL because of the hemodilution caused by an increase in plasma volume during pregnancy. The maternal pulse rate during pregnancy increases 10 to 15 beats/minute over prepregnancy readings to facilitate increased cardiac output, oxygen transport, and kidney filtration. White blood cell counts in a normal pregnancy begin to increase in the second trimester and peak in the third trimester, with a normal range of 11,000 to 15,000 cells/mm3 (up to 18,000 cells/mm3). During the immediate postpartum period, the white blood cell count may be 25,000 to 30,000 cells/mm3 because of increased leukocytosis that occurs during delivery. The nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor room and notes that the health care provider has documented that the fetal presenting part is at the -1 station. This documented finding indicates that the fetal presenting part is located at which area? 1. 1 inch below the coccyx 2. 1 inch below the iliac crest 3. 1 cm above the ischial spine 4. 1 fingerbreadth below the symphysis pubis - answer3 Station is the measurement of the progress of descent in centimeters above or below the midplane from the presenting part to the ischial spine. It is measured in centimeters, and noted as a negative number above the line and as a positive number below the line. At the negative 1 (-1) station, the fetal presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spine. A client arrives at a birthing center in active labor. Her membranes are still intact, and the health care provider prepares to perform an amniotomy. What will the nurse relay to the client as the most likely outcome of the amniotomy? 1. Less pressure on her cervix 2. Decreased number of contractions 3. Increased efficiency of contractions 4. The need for increased maternal blood pressure monitoring - answer3 Amniotomy (artificial rupture of the membranes) can be used to induce labor when the condition of the cervix is favorable (ripe) or to augment labor if the progress begins to slow. Rupturing of the membranes allows the fetal head to contact the cervix more directly and may increase the efficiency of contractions. Increased monitoring of maternal blood pressure is unnecessary following this procedure. The fetal heart rate needs to be monitored frequently, however. The nurse is monitoring a client in labor. The nurse suspects umbilical cord compression if which is noted on the external monitor tracing during a contraction? 1. Variability 2. Accelerations 3. Early decelerations 4. Variable decelerations - answer4 Variable decelerations occur if the umbilical cord becomes compressed, reducing blood flow between the placenta and the fetus. Variability refers to fluctuations in the baseline fetal heart rate. Accelerations are a reassuring sign and usually occur with fetal movement. Early decelerations result from pressure on the fetal head during a contraction. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and prepared for a cesarean delivery. After the client is transferred to the delivery room table, the nurse should place the client in which position? 1. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip 2. Trendelenburg's position with the legs in stirrups 3. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated 4. Semi-Fowler's position with a pillow under the knees - answer1 Vena cava and descending aorta compression by the pregnant uterus impedes blood return from the lower trunk and extremities. This leads to decreasing cardiac return, cardiac output, and blood flow to the uterus and subsequently the fetus. The best position to prevent this would be side-lying, with the uterus displaced off the abdominal vessels. Positioning for abdominal surgery necessitates a supine position, however; a wedge placed under the right hip provides displacement of the uterus. Trendelenburg's position places pressure from the pregnant uterus on the diaphragm and lungs, decreasing respiratory capacity and oxygenation. A semi-Fowler's position or prone position is not practical for this type of abdominal surgery. The nurse is monitoring a client in active labor and notes that the client is having contractions every 3 minutes that last 45 seconds. The nurse notes that the fetal heart rate between contractions is 100 beats/minute. Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 2.