EEG BOARD PREP ASAP TEST PREP| 650 QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS

Patient's with Rett's syndrome usually develop normally until age what? a. 18-24 months b. 3-6 months c. 6-18 months d. 2-4 years - ANSWER: c. 6-18 months Which of the following is most likely to be associated with a normal EEG? a. left frontal subdural hematoma b. left frontal abscess c. acoustic neuroma d. cerebellar abscess - ANSWER: d. cerebellar abscess During an absence seizure the technologist should? a. stop recording and go to the patient's aid b. turn the patients head to the left c. test the patients level of consciousness d. insert a tongue blade in the patients mouth - ANSWER: c. test the level of patients consciousness Hypsarrhythmia is a pattern most often associated with : a. Absence seizures b. Atonic seizures c. Infantile spasms d. Gelastic seizures - ANSWER: c. Infantile spasms Damage to wernicke's area may result in: a. Receptive aphasia b. Anoxia c. ataxia d. Expressive aphasia - ANSWER: a. receptive aphasia A spike or sharp wave results from? a. asynchronous activation of neurons b. depolarization of neurons c. repolarization of neurons d. synchronous activation of multiple neurons. - ANSWER: d. synchronous activation of multiple neurons Papilledema is most common in which of the following conditions? a. huntington chorea b. posterior fossa tumor c. temporal lobe seizures d. sturge-weber syndrome - ANSWER: b. posterior fossa tumor Used to localize site of seizure onset by looking for area of hyperperfusion; a. ct b. interictal pet c. ictal spect d. MRI - ANSWER: c. ictal spect Collateral perfusion is maintained by? - ANSWER: circle of willis The neurological examination is most likely to be abnormal in patients with: a. absence seizures b. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy c. lennox-gastaut syndrome d. rolandic epilepsy - ANSWER: c. lennox gastaut syndrome If a patient has a circumference measurement of 55cm, which of the following interelectrode distances can be calculated? a. c3 to cz b. o1 to o2 c. fz to oz d. f7 to fz - ANSWER: b. o1 to o2 The neurotransmitter that is lacking in the brain of patients with parkinson's disease is? - ANSWER: dopamine which of the following separates the motor cortex from the sensory cortex? - ANSWER: Rolandic fissure The onset of sturge-weber disease is typically during? a. adolescence b. adulthood c. elderly d. infancy - ANSWER: d. infancy consciousness a. striate cortex b. reticular formation c. cerebellum d. basal ganglia - ANSWER: b. reticular formation which is not a risk factor for JME? a. absence seizure b. patients ages 14-15 c. sleep deprivation d. patients ages 3-4 - ANSWER: d. patients ages 3-4 If the nasion to inion measurement is 40cm, what is the distance between cz to pz? - ANSWER: 8cm PLEDS are most likely to be seen in patients presenting with: a. acute drug toxicity b. hypoglycemia c. cerebral embolus d. liver failure - ANSWER: a. acute drug toxicity short interelectrode distance between electrodes will cause which of the following changes to the EEG waveform? a. increase frequency b. decrease in frequency c. decrease amplitude d. increase amplitude - ANSWER: c. decrease amplitude Ictal; a. after b. in between c. during d. before - ANSWER: c. during If the distance from the right preauricular to the right outer canthus measures 9cm, where should electrode t2 be placed? a. 1cm out from the right outer canthus and 1cm down b. 3cm out from the right preauricular point and 1 cm up c. 1cm out from the right preauricular point and 1 cm down d. 3 cm out form the right outer canthus and 1cm up - ANSWER: d. 3cm out from the right outer canthus and 1cm up when a large amount of electrode paste is used to hold EEG electrodes in place, the total recording area will be the? a. diameter of the EEG electrode b. inner surface area of the EEG electrode c. inner plus outer surface area of the EEG electrode d. total scalp surface area of the paste - ANSWER: d. total scalp area of the paste Impedance can best be described as the a. current produced by a wire coil in a magnetic field. b. resistance to alternating current c. ability to store an electrical charge d. resistance to direct current - ANSWER: b. resistance to alternating current Creutzfeld-jakob disease a. multifocal sharp waves b. periodic sharp waves c. polyspike complexes d. spike and wave complex - ANSWER: b. periodic sharp waves Bell's palsy is characterized by - ANSWER: paralysis of facial muscles EEG activity is thought to arise from which of the following? a. axonal action potentials b. cortical layers 1 and 2 c. horizontal dipoles d. excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials - ANSWER: d. epsps and IPSps when is it permissible to release patient information to a third party? a. when requested by another physician b. when a patient provides verbal consent c. when it is in the best interest of the patient d. when the patient provides written consent - ANSWER: d. when patient provides written consent a business associate agreement is required when: a. medical records are handled in the department b. medical records are shared c. staff work for more than one healthcare entity d. a new staff member is hired - ANSWER: alrecords Used in treatment for only generalized seizures, commonly in absence epilepsy treatment; a. Ethosuximide b. Phenobarbital c. Dilantin d. ACTH - ANSWER: a. ethosuximide The acronym used to describe distinctive EEG waves or complexes that occur between seizures and are distinguished from the backround activity; a. NCSE (non conclusive status epilepticus) b. FIRDA ( frontal intermittent rhythmic delta activity) c. GPEDS (generalized periodic epileptiform discharges) d. IEDs ( interictal epileptiform discharges) - ANSWER: IED's interictal epileptiform discharges (d.) ICTAL EEG a. time during the event b. time following an event c. time before the event d. time in between the event - ANSWER: a. time during the event which of the following is an effect of phenobarbital on the EEG? a. slows alpha rhythm b. increases paroxysmal activity c. decreases theta activity d. increases beta activity - ANSWER: d. increases beta activity A technologist should only discuss EEG findings with: a. consulting neurologist b. the interpreting electroencephalographer c. the patients nurse d. the patients primary care physician - ANSWER: b. the interpreting electroencephalographer The third ventricle is connected to the fourth ventricle by the; a. foramen of luschka b. foramen magnum c. aqueduct of sylvius d. foramen of munro - ANSWER: c. aqueduct of sylvius What type of seizure is NOT associated with lennox-gastaut syndrome? a. atonic seizure b. tonic seizure c. complex seizure d. atypical seizure - ANSWER: c. complex seizure A childhood disorder characterized by acquired aphasia, multifocal epileptiform abnormalities, and focal or genralized seizures; a. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy b. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome c. Landau-kleffner syndrome d. west syndrome - ANSWER: c. landau-kleffner syndrome What is the typical clinical presentation of creutzfeldt-jakob disease? - ANSWER: Progressive dementia, bilateral rigidity and myoclonus, stupor and death Which of the following measures the opposition to current flow when a known voltage is applied? a. fast fourier transform b. impedance meter c. differential amplifier d. a/d converter - ANSWER: b. impedance meter A meningioma is usually a. metastatic b. encapsulated c. infiltrating d. rapid growth - ANSWER: sulated Wernicke's area lies in the: a. posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus b. posterior part of the inferior temporal gyrus c. posterior part of the parietal lobe d. posterior part of the inferior frontal gyrus - ANSWER: a. posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the generation of EEG activity? - ANSWER: both epsps and ipsps Which of the following may be indicated by the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid? a. subarachnoid hemorrhage b. localzied intracerebral hemorrhage with no communication with ventricles c. extradural hemorrhage d. subdural hemorrhage - ANSWER: a. subarachnoid hemorrhage Sturge-weber syndrome: a. basal nucei degeneration b. V111 cranial nerve involvement c. Neurocutaneous involvement d. cherry red spot in macula of the eye - ANSWER: c. neurocutaneous involvement Rolandic gyrus - ANSWER: Frontal and parietal lobes Which of the following is grounds for disciplinary action according to ABRET's code of ethics? a. being found to have been ineligible to take the credentialing exam, even if the credential has already been earned b. refusing primary responsibility for interpretation of a study c. not identifying oneself as credentialed d. not using the credential after it has been earned - ANSWER: a. being found to have been ineligible to take the credentialing exam, even if the credential has already been earned. Acoustic neuromas arise on the following cranial nerve: - ANSWER: CN V111 Subacute Panencephalitis SSPE is caused from what disease? - ANSWER: Measles If a patient has a stroke involving the basilar artery, what clinical signs are expected to be seen? a. apraxia b. global aphasia c. quadriplegia d. diplopia - ANSWER: D. diplopia where do most brain tumors occur in children? a. frontal lobe b. temporal lobe c. posterior fossa d. anterior fossa - ANSWER: Posterior fossa (c.) According to the abret code of ethics, a credentialed technologist should report to abret if; a. they lose their certificate b. they have been convicted of a felony related to their work in neuordiagnostics. c. they received poor performance review from their employer d. they have not been keeping current in their primary field of employement. - ANSWER: b. they have been convicted of a felony related to their work in neurodiagnostics The most common site of brain tumors in children is the ? a. third ventricle b. meninges c. middle fossa d. posterior fossa - ANSWER: d. posterior fossa Which of the following is often caused by prolonged severe cerebral anoxia? a. appearance of posts b. burst suppression activity c. increase in voltage of the mu rhythm d. increase in the frequency of the alpha rhythm - ANSWER: b. burst suppression The occipital lobe receives its blood supply directly from which artery? a. posterior cerebral b. middle cerebral c. posterior cerebellar d. internal coratid - ANSWER: a. posterior cerebral Focal or unilateral suppression and slowing: a. generalized seizure disorder b. drowsiness in an elderly patient c. subdural hematoma d. renal failure - ANSWER: c. subdural hematoma The posterior cerebral artery supplies blood to the: a. frontal lobe b. visual cortex c. temporal lobe d. lateral surface of the brain - ANSWER: b. visual cortex Treatment for infantile spasms; - ANSWER: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone ACTH Atonic a. stiffness b. loss of muscle tone c. jerking d. rhythmic jerking - ANSWER: b. loss of muscle tone Which of the following is a violation of ABRETS code of ethics a. teaching other technologists without proper credentials b. being disrespectful to co-workers c. not joining a professional organization d. not striving to keep current in the technology - ANSWER: a. teaching other technologists without proper creds Proximal - ANSWER: Nearer to the trunk of the body Precentral gyrus - ANSWER: frontal lobe, primary motor cortex what is the most common low-graded tumor detected in adults with epilepsy; a. menengioma b. astrocytoma c. carcinoma d. sarcoma - ANSWER: SDS - ANSWER: Safety Data Sheet The fissure that separates the temporal lobe from the frontal - ANSWER: sylvian What is the most effective means of preventing nosocomial infections? - ANSWER: hand hygiene Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges are most likely associated with: a. metabolic encephalopathy b. generalized tonic-clonic seizures c. herpes simplex encephalitis d. atypical absence seizures - ANSWER: c. herpes simplex encephalitis The central sulcus is the anterior boundary of the ? - ANSWER: parietal lobe which of the following EEG findings indicates the worst prognosis in patients with cerebral hemorrhages? a. polymorphic delta activity b. sharp waves c. spikes d. burst suppression - ANSWER: d. burst suppression which of the following is an immediate threat to life? a. arachnoiditis b. multiple sclerosis c. epidural hematoma d. chronic subdural hematoma - ANSWER: c. epidural hematoma The main difference between simple partial and complex partial is: a. preservation of consciousness motor activity c. autonomic activity d. anatomic location - ANSWER: a. preservation consciousness Jacknife seizures - ANSWER: west syndrome The etiology MOST commonly associated with LPDs/PLEDS is what? a. anoxic injury b. ischemic stroke c. brain tumors d. intracranial hemorrhage - ANSWER: a. anoxic injury Which electrode type gives the LEAST distrotion of low frequencies? a. gold b. stainless steel c. platinum d. silver-silver chloride - ANSWER: What is the value of EEG in psychiatric disorders? a. rule out seizures b. rule out brain tumors c. diagnose psychiatric disorders d. evaluate effectiveness of medication - ANSWER: a. rule out seizures Damage to broca's area may result in? - ANSWER: expressive aphasia Gelastic epilepsy - ANSWER: laughing scotoma a. retinal inflammation b. increase in intraocular pressure c. scieral tumor d. area of visual loss - ANSWER: b. increase in intraocular pressure Once EEG data is acquired there is an expectation that the information will be protected. this means: - ANSWER: all staff are accountable for protecting the patient confidentiality cranial nerves; a. four have both sensory and motor functions b. two have both sensory and motor functions c. six have both sensory and motor function d. all have both sensory and motor functions - ANSWER: a. four have both sensory and motor functions fMRI a. flouriscopic MRI b. functional MRI c. filtered MRI d. focused MRI - ANSWER: Deja vu a. focal motor seizure b. generalized tonic clonic seizure c. absence seizure d. focal seizure - ANSWER: which artery is formed by the joining of the vertebral arteries? - ANSWER: basilar Heschl's gyrus - ANSWER: auditory aura Changes in personality are most likely associated with tumors of the ? a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. frontal lobe d. parietal lobe - ANSWER: c. frontal lobe Blood for the anterior and middle cerebral arteries is supplied by what artery? a. basilar b. internal coratid c. vertebral d. external coratid - ANSWER: b. internal coratid Reduction of health care -associated infections is addressed by a. hippa b. Acns guidelines c. cms d. national patient safety goals - ANSWER: d. national patient safety goals impedance is the resistance of a part of the circuit to the passage of? a. direct current b. leakage current c. alternating current d. direct or alternating current - ANSWER: c. alternating current In evaluating abnormal EEG discharges it is most important to document; a. last meal and handedness b. heart rate and blood pressure c. current meds and dosages d. level of consciousness and movements - ANSWER: d. level of consciousness and movements EEG is most useful in a. acoustic neuroma b. migraine c. cardiac arrhythmia d. encephalopathy - ANSWER: d. encephalopathy febrile seizures - ANSWER: Seizures that result from sudden high fevers, particularly in children. which of the following blood vessels is most frequently involved in strokes? a. anterior cerebral artery b. posterior communicating artery c. posterior cerebral artery d. middle cerebral artery - ANSWER: d. middle cerebral artery which of the following is most characteristic of creutzfeldt-jakob disease: a. hemiparesis b. tardive dyskinesia c. bradykinesia d. myoclonus - ANSWER: d. myoclonus which of the following should be documented in pt history? a. the patient donated blood prior to the EEG b. the patient is nauseated c. the patient did not sleep during the recording d. the patient had dialysis this morning - ANSWER: d. pt had dialysis this morning Through which opening do the lateral ventricles merge with the third ventricle? - ANSWER: foramen of monro The medulla controls; - ANSWER: respiration and heart rate extremely low voltage due to phase cancellation may be caused by: - ANSWER: salt bridge Vagal nerve stimulators are used to treat: a. headaches b. pain syndromes c. seizure and depression d. tumors - ANSWER: c. seizure and depression Ruptured aneurysm with headache, nuchal rigidity, confusion and drowsiness; a. cortical dysplasia b. complicated migraine c. subarachnoid hemorrhage d. subdural hemtoma - ANSWER: c. subarachnoid hemorrhage a seizure characterized by turning of the head, eyes and trunk in a single direction is usually caused by a focus in the: a. thalamus on the contralateral side to the direction of body turns b. frontal lobe on the contralateral side tot he direction the body turns. c. frontal lobe on the ipsilateral side to the direction the body turns d. parietal lobe on the ispilateral side the the direction the body turns. - ANSWER: b. frontal lobe on the contralateral side to the direction the body turns. which progression is considered rare? A. absence to tonic clonic B. rolandic to absence C. West syndrome to Lennox-gastaut D. Complex partial to generalized - ANSWER: B. rolandic to absence Expressive asphasia may result in damage to? - ANSWER: Broca's area A large lesion at the optic chiasm produces? - ANSWER: cortical blindess The EEG of a patient with a tumor in the left frontal lobe would most likely show? - ANSWER: Left frontal polymorphic delta The most important source generator of the EEG is? - ANSWER: Pyramidal dendritic PSP's The third ventricle is connected to the fourth ventricle through? - ANSWER: aqueduct of sylvius Which of the following begins with the head and eyes turning to one side? a. focal sensory seizure b. absence seizure c. adversive seizure d. myoclonic seizure - ANSWER: c. adversive seizure What is indicated by the presence of unilateral babinski signs? a. tic douloureux b. pyramidal tract dysfunction c. homonymous hemianopsia d. cerebellar dysfunction - ANSWER: b. pyramidal tract dysfunction Decorticate posturing - ANSWER: bilateral flexion at the elbows In evaluating abnormal EEG discharges it is most important to document? - ANSWER: level of consciousness and movements what is the value of EEG in psychiatric disorders? - ANSWER: Rule out seizures Which of the following is most closely related to the measurement of voltage in relation to current and resistance? a. nyquist theory b. ohm's law c. coulombs law d. Paley-winer therorem - ANSWER: b. ohms law scotoma a. scleral tumor b. retinal inflammation c. area of visual loss d. increase in intraocular pressure - ANSWER: area of visual loss (c) Which artery is formed by joining of the vertebral arteries? - ANSWER: Basilar Inflammation of the covering of the brain or spinal cord: - ANSWER: Meningitis First clinical sign of landau-kleffner syndrome (LKS) a. dysarthria b. aphasia c. dysphasia d. dyspraxia - ANSWER: a. dysarthria Which of the following blood vessels is most frequently involved in strokes? a. posterior cerebral artery b. posterior communicating artery c. middle cerebral artery d. anterior cerebral artery - ANSWER: c. middle cerebral artery which of the following should be documented in the history? a. the patient had dialysis this morning b. the patient is nauseated c. the patient donated blood prior to the EEG d. the patient did not sleep during the recording - ANSWER: a. the patient had dialysis this morning Used treatment of infantile spasms - ANSWER: acth Atonic - ANSWER: loss of muscle tone Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges are most likely associated with a. metabolic encephalopathy b. atypical absence seizures c. generalized tonic clonic seizures d. herpes simplex encephalitis - ANSWER: d. herpes simplex encephalitis single attenuated channel of EEG may be the result of? a. low input impedance b. Inter-electrode spacing too close c. 60 cycle interference d. inter-electrode spacing too distant - ANSWER: b. inter-electrode spacing too close EEG is most useful in a. acoustic neuroma b. encephalopathy c. migraine d. cardiac arrhythmia - ANSWER: b. encephalopathy Which of the following tumors is least likely to cause epileptiform activity in an EEG? a. metastic carcinoma b. pituitary adenoma c. glioblastoma multiforme d. astrocytoma - ANSWER: b. pituitary adenoma Which is most important to document in the history of your EEG patient? a. skull defects b. neuropathy c. presence of sleep apnea d. last surgery - ANSWER: a. skull defects The onset of sturge-weber disease is typically during: a. infancy b. adulthood c. adolescence d. elderly - ANSWER: a. infancy Deja Vu a. absence seizure b. focal motor seizure c. focal seizure d. generalized tonic clonic seizure - ANSWER: c. focal seizure Moya moya disease is associated with: a. metabolism b. decreased blood flow to cerebral tissue c. cerebral lesions d. calcifications in the brain - ANSWER: b. decreased blood flow to cerebral tissue Once EEG data is acquired there is an expectation that the information will be protected. This means a. patients may never have access to the raw data b. all staff are accountable for protecting the patient confidentiality c. only the medical director can remove data files from the department. d. the viewing of the data is restricted to neurologists. - ANSWER: b. all staff are accountable for protecting the patient confidentiality a seizure characterized by turning of the head, eyes and trunk in a single direction is usually caused by a focus in the? a. thalamus on the contralateral side to the direction the body turns b. frontal lobe on the ipsilateral side to the direction the body turns c. parietal lobe on the ipsilateral side to the direction the body turns. d. frontal lobe on the contralateral side to the direction the body turns. - ANSWER: d. frontal lobe on the contralateral side to the direction the body turns HIPAA - ANSWER: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act legislative act regulating patient privacy This study would be useful for acute head trauma a. ncs b. ct c. pet d. x-ray - ANSWER: b. ct using the international 10-20 electrode placements, if the distance from nasion to inion is 34 cm, what is the distance from Fz to Oz a. 20.4cm b. 27.2cm c. 30.6cm d. 23.8cm - ANSWER: c. 30.6 cm Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease a. spike and wave complex b. periodic sharp waves c. polyspike complex d. multifocal sharp wave - ANSWER: periodic sharp waves (b) Which cranial nerves are involved with eye movement? - ANSWER: CN III CN IV CN VI Which of the following is the most appropriate test for determining cerebral dominance? a. eeg b. evoked potentials c. computerized axial tomography d. intracarotid sodium amytal (wada) - ANSWER: d. intracarotid sodium amytal homonymous hemianopsia a. loss of the inferior visual field b. loss of the left visual field in one eye c. loss of the left or right visual field in both eyes d. loss of peripheral vision - ANSWER: c. loss of the left or right visual field in both eyes When testing an outpatient with active tuberculosis, it is necessary for the patient to: a. patient to wear a mask b. recording room to have negative flow c. technologist to wear a mask d. instrument to be covered with a sterile drape - ANSWER: a. patient to wear a mask PLEDS a. acute cerebral infarction b. CJD c. Meningitis d. metabolic disease - ANSWER: b. cjd which of the following is most likely to be associated with a normal EEG; a. cerebellar abscess b. left frontal subdural hematoma c. left frontal abscess d. acoustic neuroma - ANSWER: a. cerebellar abscess FT9 or T1 and FT10 or T2 electrodes record from the a. spheniod sinuses b. anterior temporal lobe c. posterior temporal lobe d. nasopharynx - ANSWER: b. anterior temporal lobe What is the difference between classic migraine and common migraine? a. common migraine headache always has an abnormal associated eeg b. a common migraine headache has an associated aura whereas a classical migraine headache does not c. a classic migraine headache has an associated aura whereas a common migraine does not d. a classical migraine headache always has an abnormal associated EEG - ANSWER: c. a classic migraine headache has an associated aura where as a common migraine does not The posterior cerebral artery supplies blood to the : a. lateral surface of the brain b. temporal lobe c. frontal lobe d. visual cortex - ANSWER: d. visual cortex short interelectrode distance between electrodes will cause which of the following changes to the EEG waveform. a. increase amplitude b. decrease amplitude c. increase frequency d. decrease frequency - ANSWER: b. decrease amplitude What seperates the sensory from the motor cortex? - ANSWER: rolandic fissure used to localize site of seizure onset by looking for area of hyperperfusion. a. MRI b. ictal spect c. interictal pet d. ct - ANSWER: b. ictal spect which of the following is an immediate threat to life? a. epidural hematoma b. multiple sclerosis c. arachnoidits d. chronic subdural hematoma - ANSWER: a. epidural hematoma A disease occurring only in females characterized by normal developement until six to eighteen months of age, after which there is a quick deterioration of mental abilites: a. tay sachs disease b. Rett syndrome c. lennox-gastaut syndrome d. rasmussens' encephalitis - ANSWER: b rett sybdrome What is the cause of wernickes encephalopathy? - ANSWER: thiamine deficiency Where is the cingulate cortex located in relation to the corpus collosum? - ANSWER: superiorly Precocious puberty is associated with pathology of the? - ANSWER: hypothalamus Given a voltage of 50 micovolts and a sensitivity of 10 microvolts/mm, what is the amplitude? a. 5mm b. 5uv/mm c. 0.2 uv/mm d. 0.2 mm - ANSWER: a. 5mm Rhythmic theta activity in the temporal region is most commonly associated with which seizure type: a. complex partial b. akinetic c. absence d. generalized tonic clonic - ANSWER: a. complex partial Alpha coma is most often seen following: a. concussion b. drug overdose c. stroke d. cardiac arrest - ANSWER: d. cardiac arrest Which of the following is most useful in the evaluation of temporal lobe seizures? a. hyperventilation b. photic stim c. awake eeg d. sleep eeg - ANSWER: d. sleep eeg Regarding eye movement artifacts, which of the following is true? a. with lateral conjugate eye movements the negativity is seen in the direction of the eye. b. the eyeball acts as a dipole, with a negative pole anteriorly near the cornea and relative positiviy posteriorly near the retina c. vertical eye movements are seen maximally at FP1 and FP2, while horizontal eye movements are recorded best at F7 and F8 d. Placement of infraorbital eye leads is of little or no clinical utility in differentiating eye movements from cortical activity. - ANSWER: Broken lead wire during a recording: a. can cause a dangerous leakage current b. not important, since the system reference can still be used as input two c. can be corrected using a software patch d. requires replacement - ANSWER: d. requires replacement Partial seizure disorder: a. 3hz spike and wave b. anterior temporal spike focus c. PLEDS d. Photoparoxysmal discharges - ANSWER: b. anterior temporal spike focus At therapeutic levels, phenytoin causes what kind of EEG findings? a. no change b. diffuse beta activity c. minimal slowing of the background activity d. increased beta activity - ANSWER: Which of the following is important for the technologist to document in order to aid in interpretation? a. the patient has a low grade fever. b. the patient was uncooperative c. the patient was awake and alert during recording d. hyperventilation was not performed due to severe asthma - ANSWER: c. the patient was awake and alert during the recording Which of the following extra electrodes might best demonstrate the EEG activity associated with focal motor twitching of the right corner of the mouth? a. C5 b. P5 c. C1 d. FT9 (T1) - ANSWER: a. C5 Brain abscess a. ECI b. Focal polymorphic delta activity c. Diffuse slowing d. burst suppression - ANSWER: b. Focal polymorphic delta activity An abbreviated 10-20 placement, respiration, ECG, and EOG monitors should be used when recording? a. elderly patients b. toddlers c. neonates d. ICU patients - ANSWER: c. neonates Why is it not best practice to allow an outpatient to sleep throughout the entire EEG recording? a. sleep is only important when evaluating seizure activity b. unable to evaluate the patients backround rhythm c. unable to address artifacts d. sleep is of no value in a routine EEG - ANSWER: b. unable to evaluate the patients backround rhythm Sphenoidal electrodes are used to record activity from the a. mesial frontal lobes b. brain stem c. basal ganglia d. anterior temporal lobes - ANSWER: d. anterior temporal lobes What type of monitoring would be useful in an EEG patient experiencing syncope? a. respiration transducer b. movement transducer c. EOG d. ECG - ANSWER: d. ECG Cortical EEG recordings can be obscured in patients who are tense and anxious due to a. myogenic artifact b. Delta slowing c. multifocal spikes d. generalized spike wave - ANSWER: a. myogenic artifact What additional monitoring should be done in middle age patient who repeatedly alerts from sleep during the EEG? a. eye movement b. muscle tone c. respiration d. movement - ANSWER: c. respiration Fourteen and six hz positive spikes are best recorded with? a. the contralateral ear reference b. a bipolar chain c. both ears connected to the reference d. an average reference - ANSWER: a. the contra lateral ear reference 14 and 6/sec hz positive spikes are best demonstrated with a reference to? a. contralateral ear b. ipsilateral ear c. CZ d. A1 + A2 - ANSWER: a. contralateral ear When do 14 and 6 hz postive spikes predominately occur? - ANSWER: light sleep At what age does the 6hz of the 14hz and 6 hz positive spike appear more in? - ANSWER: tend to appear in early childhood and in adults. At what age does the 14hz of the 14 and 6 hz positive spike appear more in? - ANSWER: 14 positive spikes are more common in older children and adolescents. Which montage would be best to localize occipital spikes by phase reversal? a. transverse bipolar b. contralateral ear referential c. common average d. circumferential bipolar - ANSWER: d. circumferential bipolar The best reference electrode in an awake patient with excessive temporal myogenic activity would be? a. neck b. mastoids c. cz d. ear lobes - ANSWER: c. cz Which of the following montages would best display the amplitude of a left temporal spike a. AP bipolar temporal chain b. Left temporal to the contralateral ear c. Transverse bipolar d. Left temporal to the ipsilateral ear - ANSWER: b. left temporal to contralateral ear When using the average reference, if a spike and wave focus appears at C3, the abnormality would be best enhanced by a. switching to Cz referential montage b. using 35 hz filter and time constant of .03 seconds c. decreasing sensitivity d. excluding C3 and surrounding electrodes from reference - ANSWER: d. excluding C3 and surrounding electrodes from reference Which comibination of settings will help enhance a low voltage slow wave that is being masked by muscle activity? a. sens 7; LLF 1; HF 70 b. sens 2; LLF 5; HF 35 c. sens 5; LLF .3; HF 35 d. sens 10; LF 1; HF 15 - ANSWER: c. sens 5; LLF .3; HF 35 Which of the following is the most appropriate instrumentation setting change that should be made in order to enhance cortical slowing? a. change the HF from 70 hz to 25 hz b. change the HF from 70hz to 15 hz c. change the LF from 1 hz to 5 hz d. change the LF from 1 hz to .1 hz - ANSWER: d. change the LF from 1hz to .1 hz When attempting to minimize relentless muscle artifact on a recording, the technologist should be aware that lowering the high filter could cause the arifact to resemble; a. beta activity b. vertex waves c. 3hz spike and wave d. polymorphic delta activity - ANSWER: a. beta activity Referential recording is most appropriate for measuring - ANSWER: amplitude/ voltage To enhance the background alpha and beta asymmetry in an EEG record showing moderately high voltage delta activity, the tech should use a ? a. shorter time constant and decreased sens b. longer time constant and decreased sens c. longer time constant and increased sens d. shorter time constant and increased sens - ANSWER: d. shorter time constant and increased sens Slow wave focus is best seen with? a. LF 5hz , paper speed 15mm/sec b. LF .3hz, paper speed 60mm/sec c. HF 70hz, paper speed 60mm/sec d. LF .3hz, paper speed 15mm/sec - ANSWER: d. LF .3 hz paper speed 15mm/sec A waveform of .5hz can be best enhanced with a filter of a. LF .3 hz b. HF 35 hz c. LF 1.0 hz d. LF 5 hz - ANSWER: a. LF .3 hz Laplacian montage a. fast fourier transform b. end of chain montage c. average ref d. source reference derivation - ANSWER: d. source ref derivation Of the following , the best choice of reference to be used when recoding in suspected temporal lobe epilepsy is a. nasopharyngeals b. Cz c. ipsi ear d. A1 + A2 - ANSWER: b. cz WHich of the following settings could be used to reduce the effects sweat artifact in a patient with asymmetrical low voltage fast activity? a. S- 15 uv/mm, LF=5 hz, HF= 70hz b. S= 5 uv/mm, LF=5 hz, HF= 70hz c. S= 10uv/mm, LF= .3 hz, HF = 35 hz d. S=5uv/mm, LF=1 hz, HF= 70 hz - ANSWER: b. S=5 uv/mm, LF= 5hz, HF= 70hz Doubling the inter-electrode distances will have what effect on the waveforms? a. increase slow activity b. decrease muscle artifact c. no effect d. increase amplitude - ANSWER: d. increase amp All the following factors favor concellation of signals in the two inputs of an amplifier, except? a. unequal impedances in the inputs b. cerebral potentials in common mode c. equal impedances in the inputs d. shorter inter-electrode distance - ANSWER: a. unequal impedances in the inputs 2016 ACNS guidelines recommends a CMRR of at least a. 90hz b. 70db c. 70hz d. 90 dB - ANSWER: d. 90 db A. 0.3 hz wave would be attenuated by what percentage witha .3 hz filter a. 0.7 b. unaffected c. 0.3 d. 0.5 - ANSWER: c. 0.3 A 0.5 hz wave is enhanced without affecting a spike by using a. LF 0.3hz b. LF 5hz c. HF 35hz d. LF 1 hz - ANSWER: a. LF 0.3 hz The ability of an amplifier to reject like signals a. phase reversal b. amplifier gain c. common mode rejection d. sensitivity - ANSWER: c. common mode rejection A time constant of 0.5 sec; a. LF 5.0hz b. low pass filter 15hz c. HF 35hz d. high pass filter 0.3 hz - ANSWER: d. high pass filter of 0.3 hz Undersampling a. aliasing b. common mode rejection c. impedance d. fast fourier transform - ANSWER: a. aliasing Time constant a. time axis b. sensitiviy c. low frequency filter d. gain - ANSWER: c. low frequency filter Which of the following converts an analog signal into a series of digital binary numbers? a. A/D converter b. Fast fourier transform c. differential amplifier d. impedance meter - ANSWER: a. a/d converter What is the specification of the minimum sampling rate used, in relation to the highest frequency signal recorded? a. ohm's theory b. Paley-winer therorem c. coulombs law d. nyquist theory - ANSWER: d. nyquist theory Input impedance should be ? a. very low b. equal to the common mode rejection ratio c. less than the common mode rejection ratio d. very high - ANSWER: d. very high Which of the following time constants would best display delta activity a. .1 sec b. .3 sec c. 1 sec d. .5 sec - ANSWER: c. 1 sec Which of the following instrumentation setting change may result in the elimination of cortical spikes? a. change the HF from 70hz to 100hz b. change the HF from 70hz to 15 hz c. change the LF from 1 hz to .1hz d. change the LF from 1 hz to 5 hz - ANSWER: b. change the HF from 70hz to 15hz Voltage resolution a. analog to digital converter b. frequency res c. horizontal sampling rate d. bandwidth - ANSWER: a. analog to digital converter A LF setting of 5hz will attenuate a 5hz wave by approximately; a. 30mm b. 0.05 c. 5mm d. 0.3 - ANSWER: d. 0.3 Which of the following is not useful in digital eeg recordings? a. balance of electrode impedances b. filters c. bio cal d. system ref. - ANSWER: c. bio cal Which of the following is the most appropriate sampling rate that should be used for a HFF setting of 70hz, according to nyquist theory? a. 10p/sec b. 140p/sec c. 210p/sec d. 20p/sec - ANSWER: b. 140p/sec Long time constant a. HFF 35hz b. LF of 1 hz c. LF of .1 hz d. HF of 70 hz - ANSWER: c. LF of .1 hz Term used to describe the way a signal is sampled at intervals and assigned a numeric value. a. aliasing b. sampling skew c. sampling rate d. linear filtering - ANSWER: c. sampling rate Which of the following sites is most commonly used for the ground electrode in EEG? a. OZ b. FZ c. FPZ d. PZ - ANSWER: C. FPZ Increasing the number of secs displayed on the monitor; a. decreases spike duration b. increases spike duration c. does not change spike amplitude or duration d. increases spike duration - ANSWER: c. does not change spike amplitude or duration According to guidelines, how many bits of resolution is required? a. 8 b. 16 c. 13 d. 10 - ANSWER: b. 16 EEG amplifiers work on the principle of a. both differential and amplification d. amplification c. differential discrimination d. aliasing - ANSWER: a. both differential and amplification Frequency? a. infuenced by CMRR and measured in microvolts b. influenced by sens and measured in cps c. influenced by impedance and measured in mm d. influenced by sampling rate and measured in hz - ANSWER: d. influenced by sampling rate and measured in hz signals common to both inputs of a differential amplifier with like frequencies, amplitude and phase are? - ANSWER: canceled For low frequency filters , the corresponding time constants for LFF cutoff frequency of 3 hz would be? a. .06 sec b. .016 sec c. .03 sec d. .05 sec - ANSWER: d. .05 sec Which of the following is the most appropriate sampling rate that should be used for a HFF setting of 70hz according to ACNS guidelines? a. 210p sec b. 140 p/ sec c. 30p/ sec d. 10p/ sec - ANSWER: a. 210 p sec Clipping of the waveforms occurs when: a. the signal is aliased b. the sens. is set too low ie 20uv/mm c. the signal is outside the range of the digitizer d. the sampling rate is too fast - ANSWER: c. the signal is outside the range of the digitizer Common Mode Rejection a. ref amplifier b. half cycle amp c. differential amp d. bipolar amp - ANSWER: c. differential amp The amount by which the differential amplifier increases the magnitude of the input signal is its a. input imp b. resistance c. filter d. sens. - ANSWER: d. sens What percentage of actual amplitude will be visible of 15hz wave when using a HFF filter of 15hz a. 0.3 b. 0.5 c. 0.15 d. 0.7 - ANSWER: d. 0.7 A device that alters the amplitude of specific frequencies of a signal a. transducer b. conductor c. filter d. capacitor - ANSWER: c. filter High data sampling rates in a digital EEG machine create? - ANSWER: smooth connected lines Gradual changes in amplitude, frequency, or spatial distribution of rhythms is known as; a. attenuation b. background activity c. evolution d asymmetry - ANSWER: c. evolution Which mathematically converts the time function into a sine wave of different frequencies? a. differential amp b. a/d converter c. fast fourier transform d. impedance meter - ANSWER: c. fast fourier transform Which of the following most closely relates to the ratio of an amplifiers output to input signal? a. impedance b. CMRR c. system gain d. display sensitivity - ANSWER: c. system gain Which of the following settings is most sensitive? a. 5 mv/cm b. 2 uv/ mm c. 5uv/ mm d. 2 mv/cm - ANSWER: b. 2 uv/ mm THe waveforms containfrequencies as high as 100 hz. what is the nyquist sampling rate? a. 25 samples/sec b. 100 samples /sec c. 50 samples/ sec d. 200 samples /sec - ANSWER: d. 200 samples/sec Digital EEG montages are reformatted by using a. referentially recorded data b. the nyquist theorem c. fourier analysis d. system reference - ANSWER: d. system ref. What happens when a 60 cycle sine wave is sampled at 100hz? a. subharmonic response b. overlap of data c. digital filtering d. aliasing - ANSWER: d. aliasing vertical resolution: a. duration b. amplitude c. frequencies d. bits - ANSWER: b. amplitude Input 1 voltage of +50 uv and input 2 a voltage of -100 uv. the out put voltage and deflection would be approximately - ANSWER: 150 and downward frequency response curve; A. sens b. input impedance c. filters d. duration - ANSWER: c. filters with high frequency filtering, muscle artifact may become distorted and look like? - ANSWER: beta activity 2016 acns guidelines recommends a minimum horizontal res of? - ANSWER: 16 bits The sharpness of the frequency response curve is determined by the filter? a. capcitance b. bancwidth c. notch d. rolloff - ANSWER: d. rolloff IF the LF is changed from 1 hz to 5 hz how will a 2 hz slow wave be affected? - ANSWER: It will be significantly attenuated Which of the following principles best appplies to EEG amplifiers a. sampling b. aliasing c. filtering d. common mode rejection - ANSWER: d. common mode rejection WHich of the following instruments magnifies the common mode voltage difference between two inputs? a. a/d converter b. differential amp c. impedance meter d. fast fourier transform - ANSWER: b. differential amp THe 60hz notch filter will have the greatest effect on a waveform having a duration of a. 25msec b. 10msec c. 16msec d. 50msec - ANSWER: c. 16msec Low sampling rate may cause fast frequencies to appear slower a. low impact imp b. aliasing c. long time constant d. over filtering - ANSWER: ing Which of the following medications would be expected to increase beta frequency activity? a. xanax (alprazolam) b. imitrex (sumatryptan) c. Paxil ( paroxetine) d. Topamax (topirimate) - ANSWER: a. xanax Which of the following drugs exhibits the most observable effect on the EEG? a. benzodiazepines b. diuretics c. anticoagulants d. analgesics - ANSWER: a. benzo Triphasic waves and or periodic discharges can be present on an eeg due to the toxic effects of which of the following meds? a. lithium b. rocuronium c. levetiracetam d. phenytoin - ANSWER: a. lithium Excessive beta frequency activity may be the result of which of the following? a. drug effect b. sleep deprivation c. skull breach d. chronic pain - ANSWER: a. drug effect what is the most common cause of generalized beta? a. hyperventilation b. medications c. burr holes d. sleep - ANSWER: b. meds ORDA is commonly seen in children with? a. absence seizures b. febrile seizures c. focal seizures d. benign rolandic epilepsy - ANSWER: a. absence seizures Phenobarbital a. beta activity b. burst suppression c. generalize slowing d. no changes - ANSWER: a. beta activity A 25 year old female admitted with new onset of psychosis was given 3 mg of ativan prior to EEG recording. HOw would this medication affect the EEG? a. focal slowing b. no change c. triphasic waves d. increased beta - ANSWER: d. increased beta Bilateral anterior beta activity is most likely to occur with? a. pyridoxine b. chlorpromazine c. pancuronium d. diazepam - ANSWER: d. diazepam What is the most prominent clinical feature of dilantin toxicity? a. ataxia b. postural tremor c. weakness d. behavioral changes - ANSWER: a. ataxia At therapeutic levels, phenytoin causes what kind of EEG findings? a. minimal slowing of the background activity b. diffuse beta activity c. no change d. increased beta activity - ANSWER: c. no change Photic light shouldb be how far from a patients eyes?? a. 3 inches b. 6 inches c. 12 inches d. 24 inches - ANSWER: c. 12 inches Which of the following activation procedures should be avoided in a patient with a recent intracranial hemorrhage? a. HV b. sleep c. mental exertion d. photic stim - ANSWER: a. HV Which activity does not typically cause an attenuation of the posterior dominant alpha rhythm in the normal adult? a. having the pt open their eyes b. having the pt. solve a math problem with eyes closed c. relaxed wakefulness with e/c d. light sleep - ANSWER: c. relaxed wakefulness with e/c A 7 year old female presents with spells of spacing out reported by teachers at her school. OF the following, which activation procedure is of most importance in assisting with diagnosis? a. photic stim b. sleep dep c. HV d. Sleep - ANSWER: c. HV An EEG obtained during sleep is of most value in which condition? a. vascular disease b. complex partial seizures c. psychiatiric disturbances d. space occupying lesions - ANSWER: b. complex partial seizure (focal impaired) What could be the cause for a build up of slowing several minutes after the HV has been completed? a. pt continues to hyperventilate b. focal lesions c. moya moya disease d. CVD - ANSWER: c. moya moya A subharmonic photic driving response is: a. the exact frequency of the flash strob b. half the frequency of the flash strobe c. attenuation for duration flash strobe d. twice the frequency of the flash strobe - ANSWER: b. half the frequency of the flash strobe During Hv , a 9yr old pt develops generalized 100-300 microvolt slowing. If within thirty seconds post HV , the record returns to its pre HV state the reaction woulb be? a. compatible with a seizure disorder b. suggestive of a tumor c. a normal response to HV d. suggestive of a metabolic disturbance - ANSWER: c. a normal response to HV Photoparoxysmal response; a. occipital pattern linked with flash rate b. EMG artifact time locked with flash frequency c. EEG response to light with spikes, spike wave discharges and or intermittent slow waves d. sub harmonic pattern - ANSWER: c. EEG response to light with spikes, spike wave discharges and or intermittent slow waves What is a sub harmonic response to photic stim? - ANSWER: Photic driving at half the speed of the flash rate. Photic induced epileptiform discharges are most likely associated with? a. hepatic encephalopathy b. down syndrome c. barbiturate withdrawal d. meningitis - ANSWER: c. barbiturate withdrawal Hyperventilation - ANSWER: Hypocapnia An asymmetric photic driving response right greate than left is; a. seen only in absence seizures b. always abnormal c. indicative of severe cerebral dysfunction d. a common finding - ANSWER: d. a common finding Which of the following would be considered an abnormal EEG presentation to photic stimulation: a. photic driving b. photoelectric c. photomyogenic d. photo paroxysmal - ANSWER: d. photoparoxysmal What other EEG pattern would you expect to see in the patient with prominent photic driving response a. slowing in posterior region b. Lamda c. OIRDA d. Epileptiform discharges - ANSWER: b. lamda Photic stimulation should be performed: - ANSWER: while awake When using the photic stim, the flash rate which would most commonly activate seizure activity would be: a. 25-30 flashes/sed b. 1-3 flashes/ sec c. 15-18 flashes /sec d. 4-7 flashes/ sec - ANSWER: c. 15-18flashes /sec Atypical photic response a. harmonic driving b. photomyogenic c. photic driving d. delta driving - ANSWER: d. delta driving Photic driving is most common at what frequencies? a. 1-4 hz b. 16-20 hz c. 25-30 hz d. 9-13 hz - ANSWER: d. 9-13 hz Which of these is a contraindication for the activation procedure HV? a. photosensitivity b. multiple sclerosis c. tuberous slcerosis d. sickle cell anemia - ANSWER: d. sickle cell anemia What type of response to photic stim is characterized by generalized spike and wave discharges continuing after the flash a. photomyogenic b. photoelectric c. photoparoxysmal d. photic recruiting - ANSWER: c. photoparoxysmal Photic stim is most effective in evoking epileptiform abnormalities in patients with? a. focal occipital seizures b. metabolic coma c. syncope d. a family history of seizures - ANSWER: d. a family history of seizures Which of the following is most useful in the evaluation of temporal lobe seizures; a. HV b. sleep eeg c. awake eeg d. photic stim - ANSWER: b. sleep eeg What is the first thing that should be done when trying to eliminate 60hz artifact: a. hide channels with artifact b. turn notch filters c. attempting to eliminate the technical issues d. change the hff setting - ANSWER: c. attempting to eliminate technical issues Sweat artifact is severely obscuring the EEG. What is the first step the tech should take to eliminate the artifact? a. turn the lff to 5hz b. cool pt down by removing blanket and fanning pt c. place a rolled up towel under the head d. turn the sens down - ANSWER: b. cool pt down by removing blanket and fanning pt Glossokinetic Artifact - ANSWER: Tongue movement Glossokinetic Artifact - ANSWER: biological Regarding eye movement artifact which of the following is true? a. with lateral conjugate eye movements the negativity is seen in the direction of the eye movement b. the eyeball acts as a dipole, with a neg pole anteriorly near the cornea, and a relative postivity posteriorly near retina c. vertical eye movements are seen max at FP1 and FP2, while horizontal eye movements are recorded best at F7 and F8 d. Placements of infra orbital eye leads is of little or no clinical utility in differentiating eye movements from corticla activity. - ANSWER: c. vertical eye movements are seen max at FP1 and Fp2 and horizontal eye movements are recorded best at F7 and F8 What is the name of artifact that appears as a prominent R wave with positivity over the left posterior quadrant of the head and can resemble a spike? a. lateral eye movement b. ECG artifact c. respiration artifact d. chewing artifact - ANSWER: b. ecg artifact Sweat artifact a. eliminated with HFF 15 hz b. associated with EKG c. slow deflection d. spike - ANSWER: c. slow deflection An EEG shows eye blink and muscle artifact. what is the likely state of the pt. a. REM b. awake c. drowsy d. stage 1 - ANSWER: b. awake Artifact that is caused by movement of people near the pts - ANSWER: electrostatic IF 60hz artifact is present in two channels of an eeg tracing, the first step in troubleshooting should be a. switch to another power outlet b. turn on 60hz filter c. check electrode impedance d. change hf filter to 15 hz - ANSWER: c. check electrode imp What should be the first reaction to 60 hz artifact in one electrode a. turn on 60hz filter b. check electrode imp c. utilize the HF d. change the montage - ANSWER: b. check electrode imp 60hz filter a. low filter b. rapid roll off filter c. notch filter d. muscle filter - ANSWER: c. notch filter NON physiologic artifact a. electrode b. eog c. emg d. glossokinetic - ANSWER: a. electrode While recording using a bipolar montage, you notice that the channel C4-P4 is unusually flat compared to the other channels. what is a possible cause? a. the electrodes require more paste b. the electrodes are too far apart c. the electrodes art too close together d. the impedances were too high - ANSWER: c. the electrodes are too close together broken lead wire during recording; a. can be corrected using a software patch b. not important, since the system ref can still be used as input two c. can cause a dangerous leakage current d. requires rep - ANSWER: d. requires replacement If a pt starts to have a seizure during photic stim the tech should a. decrease stim rate b. turn off eeg instrument c. increase sensitivity d. turn off photic stim - ANSWER: d. turn off photic stim a pt has generalized tonic-clonic seizure during an EEG recording. IF one electrode is pulled off, which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EEG tech. a. fix the electrode and tehn atten to the pt b. protect the pt from injury and keep EEG running c. sto[p the recording and fix the electrode d. stop the recording and protect the pt. - ANSWER: b. At what age range is hypnagogic hypersynchrony most prominent? a. 65-80yrs old b. 0-12 months c. 2-6yrs d. 1-2yrs. - ANSWER: c. 2-6yrs Small sharp spikes a. rem sleep b. awake c. stage 1-11 sleep d. drowsy - ANSWER: c. stage 1-11 sleep vertex waves a. temporal b. frontal c. central d. occipital - ANSWER: c. central sleep spindles may be more irregular or of lower voltage in; a. teenagers b. stage 11 sleep c. elderly patients d. females - ANSWER: c. elderly pts What is the most common frequency of sleep spindles? - ANSWER: 14 hz REM onset occurs a. after age 17 b. between n2 and n3 sleep c. 90 min after sleep onset d. 30min after sleep onset - ANSWER: c. 90min after sleep onset Hypnagogic Hypersynchrony a. is increasingly rare above the age of 5 b. can be present during arousal state transitions, both prior to sleep and onset and following arousal c. is rarely present in 3 month old infants d. in frequently associated with minimal brain dysfunction - ANSWER: b. this wave form is caused by an arousal a. k complex b. sleep spindles c. delta waves d. wickets - ANSWER: a. k complexes Stage n2 sleep is characterized by the presence of? - ANSWER: sleep spindles Narcolepsy a. sleep onset rem b. continuous rem sleep c. absent rem sleep d. decreased rem sleep - ANSWER: a. sleep onset rem EEG signs of normal drowsiness (NREM stage 1 N1 sleep) include all of the following except; a. burst of generalized theta activity b. alpha activity moves anteriorly c. increased beta activity d. left anterior temporal delta activity - ANSWER: d. left anterior temp delta activity The EEG finding during ReM sleep; a. posts b. saw tooth waves c. v waves d. spindles - ANSWER: b. saw tooth waves which of the following is characteristic of active sleep in a neonate? a. regular respirations b. frequent movements c. absence of eye movements d. trace alternant - ANSWER: b. frequent movements sharp waves located at the vertex first indicate what state a. stage 2 sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. REM d. Awake - ANSWER: b. stage 1 sleep Stage N3 sleep a. no k complexes b. rapid eye movement c. positive occipital transients d. 30% delta activity - ANSWER: d. 30% delta NREM stage1 sleep is characterized by all the following except; a. dropout of alpha b. SREMS c. sleep spindles d. vertex waves - ANSWER: c. sleep spindles Slow lateral eye movement a. drowsy b. stage 2 sleep c. awake d. REM - ANSWER: a. drowsy what waveform is seen in stage 2 sleep and during arousals, and contains 3 componets; sharp, slow, and fast a. bets b. v waves c. spindles d. k complex - ANSWER: d. k complex Sharply contoured, surface positivity, and seen in clusters over the occipital lobe during drowsiness, describes: a. lamda b. pswy c. POSTS d. wickets - ANSWER: c. posts Typically the latency to REM is a. 60min b. 120 min c. 90min d. 30 min - ANSWER: c. 90 min A degenerative disease charecterized by dementia and dance like movements a. alzheimers disease b. huntingtons chorea c. lewy body dementia d. parkinsons disease - ANSWER: b. huntingtons chorea CJD a. firda b. LPDS/Pleds c. Multifocal spikes d. GPDS/ GPEDS - ANSWER: d. GPDs/GPEDS Localized or lateralized high voltage delta is seen in: a. alcohol withdrawal b. cerebral abcess c. subarachnoid hemorrhage d. subdural hematoma - ANSWER: b. cerebral abcess Eyelid myoclonia with absences, eye closure induced seizures, EEG paroxysms and photosensitivity; a. jeavons syndrome b. rasmussen syndrome c. ramsay-hunt syndrome d. landau-kleffner syndrome - ANSWER: a. jeavons the interictal EEG of children with a history of untreated febrile seizures usually is; - ANSWER: normal which of the following requires sterilization before and after use? a. oximeter probes b. surface electrodes c. in dwelling depth electrodes d. electrode nets - ANSWER: c. in dwelling depth electrodes The EEG of a pt with lennox gastaut syndrome is most likely to show; a. 3hz spike and wave b. temporal sharp waves c. 1.5hz spike and wave discharges d. occipital spikes - ANSWER: c. 1.5hz spike and wave discharges seizure activity in which anatomical region may produce strong deja vu and chewing automatisms? a. occipital b. frontal c. temporal d. parietal - ANSWER: c. temporal Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) a. HIV b. measles c. polio d. mononucleosis - ANSWER: b. measles Which of the following infectious diseases is most frequently associated with periodic complexes in the EEG a. mumps encephalitis b. herpes simplex encephalitis c. neurosyphilis d. tuberculous meningitis - ANSWER: b. herpes simplex encephalitis in deepening coma, triphasic waves are most likely to; a. dissappear b. increase in frequency c. become unilateral d. become more prominent - ANSWER: a. dissappear slow spike and wave complexes are characteristic of a. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy b. lennox-gastaut syndrome c. absence seizures d. sturge weber - ANSWER: b. lennox gastaut syndrome occipital spikes in response to low frequency flashes are commonly seen in what condition? a. occipital lobe epilepsy b. battens disease c. huntingtons disease d. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy - ANSWER: b. battens disease PHotic induced epiileptic discharges are most likely associated with; a. meningitis b. down syndrome c. hepatic encephalopathy d. barbiturate withdrawal - ANSWER: d. barbiturate withdrawal Landau-Kleffner Syndrome a. agnosia b. aphasia c. ataxia d. apraxia - ANSWER: b. aphasia If a 3 yr old girl has a febrile seizure a week prior to EEG recording, what is the most likely finding? - ANSWER: a normal record Infantile spasms with developemental delay and hypsarrhythmic eeg pattern; - ANSWER: west syndrome The EEG of a patient with down's syndrome is most likely to show? - ANSWER: normal activity High amplitude spikes in the occipital lobe region, time locked with a slow photic stim rate in young children is a characteristic of ? - ANSWER: Battens disease Which of the following is important to know when evaluating the background activity? a. if there is a history of seizures b. patients ability to cooperate c. if HV has been performed d. patients level of alertness - ANSWER: d. pt level of alertness The EEG of a child with benigh rolandic epilepsy is most likely to show; a. 3hz spike and wave b. occipital spikes c. generalized atypical spike and wave d. C3 spikes - ANSWER: d. c3 spikes An underlying lesion of white matter will more likely result in: a. focal slowing b. intermittent slowing c. generalized spike and wave d. suppression - ANSWER: a. focal slowing An EEG pattern usually seen in toxic-metabolic encephalopathies, most commonly hepatic or renal. Usually associated with an alteration of consciousness. a. intermittent rhythmic delta patterns b. pleds c. subtle changes in the background rhythms d. triphasic waves - ANSWER: d. triphasic waves The EEG is always abnormal in: a. parkinsons disease b. transient ischemic attack c. alzheimers disease d. herpes simplex encephalitis - ANSWER: d. hepes simplex encephalitis which is the following is the worst prognostic feature in the EEG of a comatose pt. a. absence of fast activity b. generalized irregular delta c. monorhythmic tracing without variability d. voltage below 40uv - ANSWER: c. monorhythmic tracing without variability in which of the following conditions are periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges most likely a. migraine with aura b. absence epilepsy c. wenicke encephalopathy d. herpes simplex encephalitis - ANSWER: d. herpes simplex which of the following tumors is most likely to provoke eeg abnormalities? a. meningioma b. chordoma c. globlastoma d. acoustic neuroma - ANSWER: lastoma what is the tpical EEG pattern associated with absence seizures? - ANSWER: 3 hz spike and wave An eeg obtained within 24 hours following a closed head injury would be least likely to show: a. asymmetry of the background activity b. slowing over the posterior head regions c. focal polymorphic delta activity d. focal spike activity - ANSWER: d. focal spike activity A 60yr old make presents with new onset dementia and myoclonus. what would you expect to see on the EEG? a. GPED b. burst suppression c. rolandic spikes d. hypsarrhythmia - ANSWER: a. gpeds The eeg of a patient with hepatic encephalopathy is most likey to show; a. atypical spike and wave b. burst suppression c. generalized triphasic waves d. firda - ANSWER: c. generalized triphasic waves which of the following occurs during a typical absence seizure a. impaired consciousness b. aura c. generalized tonic clonic activity d. prolonged postictal period - ANSWER: a. impaired consciousness in the majority of patients with arterial hypertension and acute pure motor hemiplegia, an eeg will most likely show a. contralateral hemispheric polymorphic delta b. normal activity c. frontal intermittent rhythmic delta d. hyperventilation induced focal delta slowing - ANSWER: b. normal activity a stroke which results in only left leg wekness most likely involves which of the following arteries? a. the right vertebral artery b. the right posterior communicating artery c. the right posterior cerebral artery d. the right anterior cerebral artery - ANSWER: d. the right anterior cerebral artery Five year old boy with previously normal development, presents with sudden loss of language skills. EEG shows frequent epileptiform discharges during sleep. WHich of the following could be considered as a potetial diagnosis; a. tourette syndrome b. dravet syndrome c. landau-kleffner syndrome d. lennox-gastaut syndrome - ANSWER: c. landau-kleffner seizures with visual hallucinations such as flashing lights are most likely to arise from the; a. parietal lobe b. frontal lobe c. temporal lobe d. occipital lobe - ANSWER: d. occipital lobe this pt seizures begin with mumbling and difficulty with speech, progress to jerking on the right side, then a generalized convulsion. what is the likely correlate? a. wicket spikes b. complex partial siezure c. bi pleds d. electrodecremental seizure - ANSWER: b. complex partial siezure PLEDS are not typically seen in pts with a. acute cerebral infarct b. acute cerebral lesions c. herpes simplex encephalo d. lennox gastaut - ANSWER: d. lennox gastaut The EEG is most likely to show a hypsarrhythmia pattern in pt with? - ANSWER: west syndrome Benign rolandic epilepsy a. frontal spikes b. centraltemporal spikes c. parietal occipital spikes d. occipital spikes - ANSWER: b. central temporal spikes which of the following EEG pattern is characteristic of west syndrome? - ANSWER: hypsarrhythmia The EEG pattern of hypsarrhythmia is usually associated with? - ANSWER: infantile spasms Burst suppression a. transient ischemic attack b. deep anesthesia c. benign hypertension d. rage attack - ANSWER: b. deep anesthesia features such as bicycling movements, kicking, throwing things, rocking, often nocturnal a. temporal lobe seizures b. parietal lobe seizures c. occipital lobe seizures d. frontal lobe seizures - ANSWER: d. frontal lobe seizures what clinical states may cause the alpha rhythm to attenuate? - ANSWER: attention, anxiety , drowiness tonic phase in GTC is characterized by a. focal polyspikes b. generalized delta theta with focal spike and wave c. generalized voltage suppression and muscle arifact d. synchronous spike and wave - ANSWER: c. generalized voltage suppression and muscle artifact Very high voltage generalized, but anterior dominant fast activity appearing as continuous sleep spindles sometimes foundin mental retardation has been referred to as :