OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 20: Laboratory Analysis of the Immune Response

OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Chapter 20: Laboratory Analysis of the Immune Response * = Correct answer Multiple Choice 1. Most antigens have how many epitopes? A. none B. one C. two D. more than two* 2. Which best describes monoclonal antibodies? A. They are produced in living animals only. B. They are produced in tissue cultures, using B cells extracted from living animals.* C. They are rarely used, so polyclonal antibodies are preferred. D. They can be produced in either living animals or tissue cultures. 3. A hybridoma is which of the following? A. a cancerous cell B. a fusion of a B cell and a T cell C. a fusion of a normal B cell and a myeloma cell* D. a hybrid of two cancerous cells 4. Which is the correct term for a visible antigen-antibody complex? A. epitope B. heavy chain complex C. hybridoma D. precipitin* 5. Monoclonal antibodies bind to which of the following? A. a single epitope* B. a single hybridoma C. multiple epitopes D. variable numbers of epitopes 6. Double immunodiffusion is also known as which of the following? A. flocculation assay B. Ouchterlony assay* C. precipitin ring test D. radial immunodiffusion assay 7. Which technique is used to help view tissues, using microscopy? A. electrophoresis B. immunostaining* C. lateral flow assays D. western blotting 8. Which technique could be used to rapdly diagnose strep throat or mycoplasma pneumonia by labeling bacteria with fluorescent monoclonal antibodies? A. brightfield microscopy and ELISA techniques B. fluorescence microscopy and direct fluorescent antibody techniques* C. immunohistochemistry and immunostaining techniques in varying combinations D. western blotting with chromogens or fluorogens 9. Which of the following describes antiserum? A. a type of vaccine produced in the laboratory B. antibodies obtained by exposing blood to an antigen in the lab C. monoclonal antibodies obtained from the blood of an animal injected with an antigen D. whole serum containing antibodies obtained from an animal exposed to an antigen* 10. When does an antibody test result in a false positive? A. An individual tests as though she does not have the antigen even though she does. B. An individual tests as though she has the antigen even though she does not.* C. Antibodies bind to the antigen too strongly, causing an error in the testing protocol. D. Variations in antibodies cause them to fail to bind to an antigen that is present. 11. Test sensitivity is defined as which of the following? A. the probability that an individual will have a false-positive test result B. the probability that an individual with an infection will test positive* C. the probability that an individual with an infection will test negative D. the probability that a test will detect multiple antigens simultaneously 12. Which of the following most commonly results from exposure to a single antigen? A. A single antibody is produced that can respond to multiple antigens. B. A single antibody is produced that is specific to that antigen. C. Multiple antibodies are produced because antigens usually have multiple epitopes. D. Multiple antibodies are produced to respond to a single epitope.* 13. When a particular test rarely produces false negatives, it has which of the following? A. high sensitivity* B. high specificity C. low sensitivity D. low utility 14. Compared with the production of polyclonal antibodies, the production of monoclonal antibodies is which of the following? A. completed without hybridomas B. easier and faster C. less expensive D. more expensive* 15. Which type of antibody is preferable for western blot tests and why? A. monoclonal antibodies, because they are more sensitive and produce a clearer signal B. monoclonal antibodies, because they are more specific and less expensive C. polyclonal antibodies, because they are able to bind to specific epitopes even though they are more expensive D. polyclonal antibodies, because they can bind to multiple epitopes, generally produce a stronger signal, and are less expensive* 16. What problem makes it difficult to use humanized monoclonal antibody cocktails to treat pathogens? A. It is less expensive to use monoclonal antibody cocktails rather than purified monoclonal antibodies. B. It is too technically difficult to separate out the different monoclonal antibodies. C. Monoclonal antibodies are not sufficiently strong to target pathogens without being used in high concentrations. D. Monoclonal antibodies are so specific that they may not target all serovars of a pathogen.* 17. Which technique has been proposed to make less-expensive monoclonal antibodies? A. They can be humanized so that they are easier to use in humans. B. They can be produced in complex mixtures rather than in purified versions. C. They can be produced in genetically engineered plants as plantibodies.* D. They can be produced using RT-PCR techniques. 18. ZMapp is an experimental drug that appeared to be a promising treatment during the 2014– 2015 Ebola outbreak. Which is a major limitation to using this type of medication? A. ZMapp consisted of polyclonal antibodies, so it was not sufficiently specific to work effectively. B. ZMapp consisted of three monoclonal antibodies to treat multiple Ebola strains, making it prohibitively expensive even if available in sufficient quantities.* C. ZMapp was produced by genetically engineered plants and the virus used to introduce it into plants could cause a problematic immune response in humans. D. ZMapp was produced in tissue cultures, which is a slow and laborious process that can’t be used to make medications in bulk quantities. 19. Which of the following correctly describes the effect of a particular factor of a precipitin reaction on the amount of precipitin formed? A. A 1:1 ratio of antibody to antigen yields the maximum amount of precipitate. B. Monoclonal antibodies generally bind more and, therefore, produce more precipitate than polyclonal antibodies. C. The greater the affinity of the antibody for the antigen, the greater the amount of precipitate.* D. The lack of a lattice increases precipitation compared with the presence of a lattice. 20. The precipitin ring test is used to do which of the following? A. qualitatively identify the presence of a particular antibody in an antiserum B. quantify the relative amount of a specific antibody present in an antiserum only* C. quantify the relative amount of a specific antigen present in an antiserum only D. quantify the relative amounts of a specific antibody and the antigen to which it binds present in an antiserum 21. Which is the formal definition of an antibody titer? A. It is a fractional expression of the highest dilution of serially diluted antibody that results in visible precipitation. B. It is a whole-number expression of the reciprocal of the highest dilution of serially diluted antibody that results in visible precipitation* C. It represents the highest dilution in a serial dilution test that shows a positive result, rounded to a whole number. D. It represents the total number of dilutions needed to get a positive result. 22. What is a major difference between the precipitin reaction test and flocculation assays? A. Only flocculation involves a visible lattice of antibody and antigen. B. Only flocculation involves the observation of lipids foaming in a positive result.* C. Only flocculation involves the observation of precipitate in a positive result. D. Only flocculation involves the use of a serial dilution technique. 23. A plaque reduction assay is used to quantify which of the following? A. antibodies produced by a patient during a bacterial infection B. antibodies produced by a patient during a viral infection* C. antigens produced by a bacterium during a bacterial infection D. antigens produced by a virus during viral infection 24. Which test would be most helpful in further examining abnormal patterns of protein abundance previously identified using a PAGE assay? A. a neutralization assay B. a precipitin ring test C. an indirect ELISA test D. immunoelectrophoresis* 25. Glycerol is used during the precipitin ring test to do which of the following? A. form a seal to prevent evaporation of the antiserum and antigen B. fully dissolve the antiserum and antigen into a homogenous solution C. prevent the antiserum and antigen solutions from mixing at all D. prevent the antiserum and antigen solutions from mixing except at their interface* 26. Why is cross-matching needed before a blood transfusion? A. Cross-matching is a final check before transfusion that involves mixing the patient’s blood with a small sample of the blood to be transfused as an additional check.* B. Cross-matching is the first attempt to make sure the blood is compatible before more