BIO235 Final exam questions - CH 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29. Actual Exam Questions Included. Updated 2024.

BIO235 Final exam questions - CH 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29. Actual Exam Questions Included. Updated 2024. Which of the following terms identifies the anatomical region found between the lungs that extends from the sternum to the vertebral column and from the first rib to the diaphragm? a) Epicardium b) Abdominal cavity c) Pericardium d) Mediastinum e) Thoracic cavity d) Mediastinum The membrane that surrounds and protects the heart is called the a) pericardium. b) pleura. c) myocardium. d) mediastinum. e) endocardium. a) pericardium. The apex of the heart is normally pointed a) at the midline. b) to the left of the midline. c) to the right of the midline. d) is different for males and females e) posteriorly. b) to the left of the midline. The outermost layer of the pericardium, which consists of inelastic dense irregular connective tissue, is called the a) parietal layer of pericardium. b) serous pericardium. c) fibrous pericardium. d) epicardium. e) endocardium. c) fibrous pericardium. Which of the following is used to reduce friction between the layers of membranes surrounding the heart? a) Synovial fluid b) Endocardium c) Pleural fluid d) Pericardial fluid e) Capillary endothelium d) Pericardial fluid Which layer of the heart wall consists of mesothelium and connective tissue? a) Epicardium b) Myocardium c) Endocardium d) Fibrous pericardium e) None of the answer selections are correct a) Epicardium Which layer of the heart wall consists of cardiac muscle tissue? a) Epicardium b) Pericardium c) Myocardium d) Endocardium e) Hypocardium c) Myocardium Identify the pouch-like structure that increases the total filling capacity of the atrium. a) Ventricle b) Coronary sulcus c) Fossa ovalis d) Interatrial septum e) Auricle. e) Auricle. Identify the groove found on the surface of the heart and marks the boundary between the right and left ventricles. a) Coronary sulcus b) Anterior interventricular sulcus c) Posterior interventricular sulcus d) Coronary sinus e) Anterior intraventricular sulcus b) Anterior interventricular sulcus Identify the muscular ridges that are found on the anterior wall of the right atrium and extend into the auricles. a) Pectinate muscles b) Trabeculae carneae c) Coronary sulci d) Papillary muscles e) Chordae tendinae a) Pectinate muscles Through which structure does blood pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle? a) Bicuspid valve b) Interventricular septum c) Tricuspid valve d) Mitral valve e) Ascending aorta c) Tricuspid valve What type of tissue comprises the valves of the heart? a) Dense connective tissue b) Areolar connective tissue c) Hyaline cartilage d) Cardiac muscle tissue e) Adipose tissue a) Dense connective tissue Blood leaving the left ventricle passes through which of the following structures? a) Right atrium b) Interventricular septum c) Bicuspid valve d) Aortic semilunar valve e) Pulmonary semilunar valve d) Aortic semilunar valve Identify the structure found in a fetus that allows blood to flow directly from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta. a) Fossa ovalis b) Foramen ovale c) Trabeculae carneae d) Descending aorta e) Ductus arteriosus e) Ductus arteriosus Contraction of the ventricles of the heart leads to blood moving directly a) into arteries. b) into capillaries. c) into veins. d) through an atrioventricular valve. e) through the apex. a) into arteries. Contraction of the atria of the heart leads to blood moving directly a) into auricles. b) into arteries. c) into veins d) through atrioventricular valves e) through semilunar valves. d) through atrioventricular valves 18) Which valve below prevents blood from flowing back into the right ventricle? a) Tricuspid valve b) Bicuspid valve c) Pulmonary semilunar valve d) Aortic semilunar valve e) Mitral valve c) Pulmonary semilunar valve What of the following chambers of the heart contain deoxygenated blood? a) Left atrium and left ventricle b) Left atrium only c) Right atrium and right ventricle d) Right ventricle only e) Left atrium and right ventricle c) Right atrium and right ventricle Which of the following blood vessel is used to distribute oxygenated blood to the myocardium? a) Coronary artery b) Coronary vein c) Coronary sinus d) Vena cava e) Myocardial vein a) Coronary artery Cardiac muscle fibers are electrically connected to neighboring fibers by a) desmosomes. b) tight junctions. c) gap junctions. d) interneurons. e) chordae tendinae. c) gap junctions. Which of the following type of muscle contains the largest number of mitochondria per cell? a) Smooth muscle b) Skeletal muscle c) Cardiac muscle d) All the muscle types contain approximately the same number. e) Mitochondria are not found in muscle cells. c) Cardiac muscle Which network of specialized cardiac muscle fibers provide a path for each cycle of cardiac excitation to progress through the heart? a) Systemic circuit b) Intercalated discs c) Cardiovascular center d) Cardiac conduction system e) Pulmonary circuit d) Cardiac conduction system Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structures that a cardiac action potential follows in order to excite normal contraction of the heart? a) Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, Atrioventricular (AV) node b) Sinoatrial (SA) node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, Bundle of His c) Purkinje fibers, AV node, SA node, Bundle of His d) SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers e) Bundle of His, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers d) SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers In comparison to skeletal muscle fibers, the contractile fibers of the heart are depolarized for _____ period of time. a) a shorter b) a longer c) the same b) a longer The volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta each minute is called the a) cardiac output. b) cardiac input. c) stroke volume. d) heart rate. e) pulse pressure. a) cardiac output. Which term refers to the period of time during a cardiac cycle when contraction of a chamber occurs and pressure within the chamber rises? a) filling b) systole c) repolarization d) diastole e) fibrillation b) systole During which of following periods does the largest volume of blood enter the arteries? a) atrial diastole b) ventricular diastole c) atrial systole d) ventricular systole d) ventricular systole The second heart sound (dupp) closely follows which of the events listed below? a) Valvular stenosis b) Semilunar valves opening c) Atrioventricular valves closing d) Semilunar valves closing e) Atrioventricular valves opening d) Semilunar valves closing Which structure in the heart initiates action potentials that stimulate contraction of the heart at constant rate of about 100 beats per minute? a) Cardiac accelerator nerves b) Atrioventricular node c) Cardiovascular center d) Sinoatrial node e) Bundle of His d) Sinoatrial node Stimulation of which nerve reduces heart rate? a) Cardiac accelerator nerve b) Hypoglossal nerve c) Spinal accessory d) Vagus nerve e) Phrenic nerve d) Vagus nerve Which of the following would lead to a decreased heart rate? a) Increased norepinephrine release b) Increased thyroid hormone release c) Increased potassium levels in plasma d) Increased calcium levels in plasma e) Increased sympathetic stimulation c) Increased potassium levels in plasma Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate? a) Midbrain b) Cerebrum c) Medulla oblongata d) Cerebellum e) Thalamus c) Medulla oblongata Which wave in an electrocardiogram represents repolarization of the ventricles? a) R wave b) T wave c) S wave d) P wave e) Q wave b) T wave Which of the following selections lists conditions that would lead to increased stroke volume? a) increased preload, increased afterload, increased contractility b) decreased preload, decreased afterload, decreased contractility c) increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility d) decreased preload, increased afterload, increased contractility e) increased preload, increased afterload, decreased contractility c) increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility Which of the following electrocardiogram (EKG) waves represents atrial depolarization? a) R wave b) T wave c) S wave d) P wave e) Q wave d) P wave Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected from the _____ ventricle into the _____ each minute. a) left, aorta b) right, aorta c) left or right, aorta or pulmonary trunk d) right, pulmonary trunk e) both left and right aorta are correct c) left or right, aorta or pulmonary trunk The difference between a person's maximum cardiac output and resting cardiac output is called the a) stroke volume. b) peripheral resistance. c) afterload. d) cardiac reserve. e) venous return. d) cardiac reserve. What is the function of the foramen ovale during fetal life? a) Allowing blood to flow directly from the right atrium into the left atrium. b) Allowing blood to flow directly from the right ventricle into the left ventricle. c) Serves as a valve in the vena cava to regulate venous blood flow. d) Prevents back flow of blood from aorta into the left ventricle. e) Prevents back flow of blood from pulmonary trunk into the right ventricle. a) Allowing blood to flow directly from the right atrium into the left atrium. Isovolumetric contraction is the phase of the cardiac cardiac cycle in which a) the semilunar valves are open. b) ventricular repolarization occurs. c) atrial depolarization occurs. d) oxygenated blood leaves the heart into the systemic circulation. e) ventricular pressure increases and ventricular volume remains the same. e) ventricular pressure increases and ventricular volume remains the same. Which of the following chambers of the heart is surrounded by the thickest layer of myocardium? a) right atrium b) left atrium c) right ventricle d) left ventricle e) right auricle d) left ventricle 72) Heart murmurs are often heard in individuals with abnormalities in the _____ of the heart. a) valves b) myocardium c) SA node d) AV node e) endocardium a) valves 73) In comparison to a sedentary individual, a well-trained athlete will usually have all the following characteristics EXCEPT a) a higher cardiac reserve. b) a higher resting cardiac output. c) a higher stroke volume. d) hypertrophy of the heart. e) resting bradycardia. b) a higher resting cardiac output. During heart transplants, the _____ nerves are severed resulting in a faster resting heart rate (approximately 100 beats per minute) after the transplant. a) glossopharyngeal b) cardiac accelerator c) vagus d) phrenic e) cervical spinal c) vagus A corrective cardiac procedure in which a large piece of a patient's own latissimus dorsi muscle is wrapped around the heart and stimulated by an implanted pacemaker to assist the pumping action of a damaged heart. a) myocardial infarction b) tetrology of Fallot c) cardiomyopathy d) cardiomegaly e) cardiomyoplasty e) cardiomyoplasty Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood? a) Transportation of nutrients b) Regulation of blood pH c) Protection against infectious disease d) Transportation of heat e) Production of oxygen e) Production of oxygen Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding blood? a) The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4o F. b) The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45. c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood. d) The primary circulating blood cell is the RBC. e) Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and a liquid extracellular matrix. c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood. The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by a) WBCs. b) platelets. c) RBCs. d) plasma. e) plasma proteins. c) RBCs. 4) What percentage of blood plasma is water? a) 95.1% b) 91.5% c) 88.5% d) 4.9% e) 8.5% b) 91.5% Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance? a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Fibrinogen d) Myoglobin e) Hemoglobin b) Globulins Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting? a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Fibrinogen d) Prostaglandins e) None of these choices c) Fibrinogen The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called a) hematospermia. b) hemopoiesis. c) thrombocytosis. d) hemostasis. e) polycythemia. b) hemopoiesis. A megakaryoblast will develop into a) a red blood cell. b) a white blood cell. c) a platelet. d) either a white blood cell or a platelet. e) none of these choices. c) a platelet. During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into a) proerythroblasts. b) T lymphoblasts. c) B lymphoblasts. d) NK lymphoblasts. e) all of these choices. a) proerythroblasts. Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow? a) erythropoietin (EPO) b) thrombopoietin (TPO) c) human growth hormone (hGH) d) calcitonin (CT) e) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) a) erythropoietin (EPO) Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC? a) 50 million b) 100 million c) 280 million d) 320 million e) 430 million c) 280 million Ferritin is a protein used to a) transport iron in the blood. b) store iron in the liver. c) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes. d) synthesize iron. e) absorb iron across intestinal cells. b) store iron in the liver. The major function of red blood cells is a) nutrient transport. b) cytokine stimulation. c) blood cell proliferation. d) gas transport. e) disease resistance. d) gas transport. Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a a) proerythroblast. b) megakaryocyte. c) progenitor cell. d) mature erythrocyte. e) reticulocyte. e) reticulocyte. Which of the following blood cells is a phagocyte? a) Neutrophil b) Platelet c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Erythrocyte a) Neutrophil Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel? a) Erythrocyte b) Platelet c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Neutrophil b) Platelet Which of the following blood cells release granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions? a) Eosinophil b) Monocyte c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Neutrophil d) Basophil Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against parasitic worms? a) Eosinophil b) Monocyte c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Neutrophil a) Eosinophil Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders? a) Eosinophil b) Macrophage c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Platelet c) Lymphocyte Which of the following cells is NOT an agranular leukocyte? a) Monocytes b) Macrophage c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) All of these choices d) Basophil The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called a) emigration. b) diaphysis. c) adhesion. d) opsonization. e) phagocytosis. a) emigration. Which of the following chemical substances are NOT commonly released by mast cells? a) Heparin b) Histamine c) Nitric oxide d) Proteases e) All of these choices c) Nitric oxide Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts? a) Erythropoietin b) Thrombopoietin c) Nitric oxide d) Human growth hormone e) Heparin b) Thrombopoietin Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel? a) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting e) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of a) thromboplastin. b) prothrombinase. c) clotting factor XII. d) fibrin. e) tissue factor. b) prothrombinase. Which of the following clotting factors is involved in strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot? a) Factor V b) Factor VII c) Factor XI d) Factor XIII e) Factor XIV d) Factor XIII Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy? a) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative d) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive. b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release? a) Heparin b) Fibrinogen c) Plasmin d) Antithrombin e) Prostacyclin e) Prostacyclin Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils? a) Heparin b) Fibrinogen c) Thromboxane A2 d) Prostacyclin e) Plasmin a) Heparin Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood? a) anti-A b) anti-B c) anti-A and anti-B d) No antibodies to ABO blood group antigens e) Not enough information to answer c) anti-A and anti-B What blood type is a person if their plasma contains only anti-A agglutinin? a) A b) B c) O d) AB e) Not enough information is provided to answer question. b) B Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to neutrophils? a) Megakaryoblast b) Proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) Monoblast e) Myeloblast e) Myeloblast Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to the platelets? a) Megakaryoblast b) Proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) Monoblast e) Myeloblast a) Megakaryoblast Which of the following formed elements found in the blood are derived from reticulocytes? a) Platelets b) Erythrocytes c) T lymphocytes d) Monocytes e) Basophils b) Erythrocytes Which of the following precursor cells give rise to agranular leukocytes? a) Proerythroblast b) Megakaryoblast c) Lymphoblast d) Myeloblast e) None of the selections are correct. c) Lymphoblast Which of the following precursor cells give rise to basphils and eosinphils? a) Proerythroblast b) Megakaryoblast c) Lymphoblast