BIOD331 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Module 4
Final Exam Review
Q&A
2024
,1. A patient with a history of hypertension and smoking is admitted with a
diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which of the following
lab results would be most indicative of AMI?
A. Elevated white blood cell count
B. Elevated troponin I and T levels
C. Decreased red blood cell count
D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen levels
Answer: B. Elevated troponin I and T levels
Rationale: Troponin I and T are cardiac markers that are highly specific
for myocardial injury and are elevated in the blood within hours of an
AMI.
2. A 67-year-old male with chronic atrial fibrillation is on anticoagulation
therapy. What is the primary reason for this treatment?
A. To prevent arterial plaque formation
B. To reduce the risk of thromboembolic events
C. To control heart rate
D. To decrease blood pressure
Answer: B. To reduce the risk of thromboembolic events
Rationale: Patients with atrial fibrillation have an increased risk of
forming clots in the atria due to stagnant blood flow, which can lead to
thromboembolic events such as stroke.
3. A nursing student is reviewing a case of a patient with anemia. Which
of the following is a common sign of anemia?
A. Hypertension
B. Jaundice
C. Pallor
D. Polycythemia
Answer: C. Pallor
Rationale: Pallor, or paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia
due to the reduced hemoglobin and red blood cell count.
4. In assessing a patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD), which
symptom would you expect to find?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Productive cough
C. Wheezing
, D. Orthopnea
Answer: A. Intermittent claudication
Rationale: Intermittent claudication, characterized by pain and cramping
in the legs during exercise due to poor circulation, is a hallmark symptom
of PAD.
5. A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and a rapid heart rate. An
ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pericarditis
B. Stable angina
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: C. Acute myocardial infarction
Rationale: ST-segment elevation on an ECG is a key diagnostic
indicator of an acute myocardial infarction.
6. During a blood transfusion, a patient develops fever, chills, and back
pain. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Fluid overload
Answer: B. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of a hemolytic transfusion
reaction, where the patient's immune system attacks the transfused blood
cells.
7. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed anticoagulant
therapy. What is the primary goal of this treatment?
A. To dissolve the existing clot
B. To prevent the formation of new clots
C. To reduce inflammation
D. To alleviate pain
Answer: B. To prevent the formation of new clots
Rationale: Anticoagulant therapy does not dissolve existing clots but
prevents new clots from forming, reducing the risk of complications like
pulmonary embolism.
Module 4
Final Exam Review
Q&A
2024
,1. A patient with a history of hypertension and smoking is admitted with a
diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which of the following
lab results would be most indicative of AMI?
A. Elevated white blood cell count
B. Elevated troponin I and T levels
C. Decreased red blood cell count
D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen levels
Answer: B. Elevated troponin I and T levels
Rationale: Troponin I and T are cardiac markers that are highly specific
for myocardial injury and are elevated in the blood within hours of an
AMI.
2. A 67-year-old male with chronic atrial fibrillation is on anticoagulation
therapy. What is the primary reason for this treatment?
A. To prevent arterial plaque formation
B. To reduce the risk of thromboembolic events
C. To control heart rate
D. To decrease blood pressure
Answer: B. To reduce the risk of thromboembolic events
Rationale: Patients with atrial fibrillation have an increased risk of
forming clots in the atria due to stagnant blood flow, which can lead to
thromboembolic events such as stroke.
3. A nursing student is reviewing a case of a patient with anemia. Which
of the following is a common sign of anemia?
A. Hypertension
B. Jaundice
C. Pallor
D. Polycythemia
Answer: C. Pallor
Rationale: Pallor, or paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia
due to the reduced hemoglobin and red blood cell count.
4. In assessing a patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD), which
symptom would you expect to find?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Productive cough
C. Wheezing
, D. Orthopnea
Answer: A. Intermittent claudication
Rationale: Intermittent claudication, characterized by pain and cramping
in the legs during exercise due to poor circulation, is a hallmark symptom
of PAD.
5. A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and a rapid heart rate. An
ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pericarditis
B. Stable angina
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: C. Acute myocardial infarction
Rationale: ST-segment elevation on an ECG is a key diagnostic
indicator of an acute myocardial infarction.
6. During a blood transfusion, a patient develops fever, chills, and back
pain. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Fluid overload
Answer: B. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of a hemolytic transfusion
reaction, where the patient's immune system attacks the transfused blood
cells.
7. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed anticoagulant
therapy. What is the primary goal of this treatment?
A. To dissolve the existing clot
B. To prevent the formation of new clots
C. To reduce inflammation
D. To alleviate pain
Answer: B. To prevent the formation of new clots
Rationale: Anticoagulant therapy does not dissolve existing clots but
prevents new clots from forming, reducing the risk of complications like
pulmonary embolism.
