West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam Questions
and Answers
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
Select one:
A. start CPR and transport immediately.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. determine if he has a valid living will.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Select one:
A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the
scene of an emergency.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory
arrest, and cardiac arrest.
C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and
advanced airway management.
D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics,
physicians, and emergency nurses.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory
arrest, and cardiac arrest.
Between each chest compression, you should __________.
Select one:
A. check for a pulse
B. allow full chest recoil
C. administer a breath
D. remove your hands from the chest
B. allow full chest recoil
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a fractured sternum.
B. gastric distention.
C. rib fractures.
D. liver laceration.
B. gastric distention.
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left,
return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her
heart.
B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her
pulse.
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression
effectiveness.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression
effectiveness.
,CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Select one:
A. occurs every 24 months.
B. is delivered by computer.
C. involves hands-on practice.
D. is self-paced and brief.
C. involves hands-on practice.
CPR should be initiated when:
Select one:
A. rigor mortis is obvious.
B. signs of putrefaction are present.
C. the carotid pulse is very weak.
D. a valid living will is unavailable.
D. a valid living will is unavailable.
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Select one:
A. supine.
B. prone.
C. horizontal.
D. on a firm surface.
B. prone.
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Select one:
a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
b.
c. in patients who are intubated.
d. when the airway is completely obstructed.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________.
Select one:
A. leave it in place
B. continue chest compressions
C. remove it
D. place the patient on his or her side
C. remove it
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
Select one:
A. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B. severe chest trauma.
C. respiratory arrest.
D. a drug overdose.
C. respiratory arrest.
,Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have
been unsuccessful. You should:
Select one:
A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.
B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. grasping the throat.
B. acute cyanosis.
C. inability to speak.
D. forceful coughing.
D. forceful coughing.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-
decompression CPR by:
Select one:
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest
compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest
compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.
C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive
intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.
D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and
forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest
compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Select one:
A. 30:2
B. 5:1
C. 30:1
D. 3:2
A. 30:2
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.
B. with one or two hands.
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
, D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
Without practice, your CPR skills will __________.
Select one:
A. become part of your muscle memory
B. improve over time
C. come back automatically when needed
D. deteriorate over time
D. deteriorate over time
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
Select one:
A. place the patient supine.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
C. administer back blows.
D. perform abdominal thrusts.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you
apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the
AED pads will be placed. You should:
Select one:
A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads.
B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.
C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test,
which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
Select one:
A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be
to:
Select one:
A. contact medical control.
B. notify law enforcement.
C. quickly access the patient.
D. take standard precautions.
D. take standard precautions.
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system
nonfunctional.
and Answers
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
Select one:
A. start CPR and transport immediately.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. determine if he has a valid living will.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Select one:
A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the
scene of an emergency.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory
arrest, and cardiac arrest.
C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and
advanced airway management.
D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics,
physicians, and emergency nurses.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory
arrest, and cardiac arrest.
Between each chest compression, you should __________.
Select one:
A. check for a pulse
B. allow full chest recoil
C. administer a breath
D. remove your hands from the chest
B. allow full chest recoil
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a fractured sternum.
B. gastric distention.
C. rib fractures.
D. liver laceration.
B. gastric distention.
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left,
return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her
heart.
B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her
pulse.
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression
effectiveness.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression
effectiveness.
,CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Select one:
A. occurs every 24 months.
B. is delivered by computer.
C. involves hands-on practice.
D. is self-paced and brief.
C. involves hands-on practice.
CPR should be initiated when:
Select one:
A. rigor mortis is obvious.
B. signs of putrefaction are present.
C. the carotid pulse is very weak.
D. a valid living will is unavailable.
D. a valid living will is unavailable.
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Select one:
A. supine.
B. prone.
C. horizontal.
D. on a firm surface.
B. prone.
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Select one:
a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
b.
c. in patients who are intubated.
d. when the airway is completely obstructed.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________.
Select one:
A. leave it in place
B. continue chest compressions
C. remove it
D. place the patient on his or her side
C. remove it
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
Select one:
A. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B. severe chest trauma.
C. respiratory arrest.
D. a drug overdose.
C. respiratory arrest.
,Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have
been unsuccessful. You should:
Select one:
A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.
B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. grasping the throat.
B. acute cyanosis.
C. inability to speak.
D. forceful coughing.
D. forceful coughing.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-
decompression CPR by:
Select one:
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest
compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest
compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.
C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive
intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.
D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and
forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest
compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Select one:
A. 30:2
B. 5:1
C. 30:1
D. 3:2
A. 30:2
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.
B. with one or two hands.
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
, D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
Without practice, your CPR skills will __________.
Select one:
A. become part of your muscle memory
B. improve over time
C. come back automatically when needed
D. deteriorate over time
D. deteriorate over time
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
Select one:
A. place the patient supine.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
C. administer back blows.
D. perform abdominal thrusts.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you
apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the
AED pads will be placed. You should:
Select one:
A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads.
B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.
C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test,
which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
Select one:
A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be
to:
Select one:
A. contact medical control.
B. notify law enforcement.
C. quickly access the patient.
D. take standard precautions.
D. take standard precautions.
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system
nonfunctional.
