Challenging VTNE questions
You are asked to run an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip on a pet. There are three leads on your
machine. One is white, one is black, and one is red. Where should these be placed?
Answer: White: right forelimb, black: left forelimb, red: left hindlimb
Explanation - White= right front
Black= left front
Red= left hind
Green (if present)= right hind
The easy ways to remember these: You read your newspaper in the morning (black and white towards
front of pet), Christmas comes at the end of the year (red and green towards the rear of pet). In right
lateral recumbency: snow (white) and grass (green) are on the ground so are on the right side down
towards the table. White also rhymes with right.
A horse with flared nostrils and a heave line from the tuber coxae towards the elbow with forced
expiration likely has which of the following conditions?
A.) Congestive heart failure
B.) Obstructive airway disease
C.) Lead poisoning
D.) Laminitis
Answer: Obstructive airway disease
These symptoms are typical of a horse with chronic increased respiratory effort. Coughing, weight
loss, lack of energy, and exercise intolerance are also signs of this condition, termed "chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease" (COPD). It is more common in older horses that are stabled during
winter months. It is helpful to turn these horses out to pasture to help control the disease. COPD is
similar to asthma in humans.
A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following?
A.) Chylothorax
B.) Pyothorax
C.) Pericardial effusion
D.) Hemoabdomen
Answer: Chylothorax
Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if
the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma-related). The effusion typically appears as a milky
white fluid and is odorless. This is only one cause of chylothorax. Other causes include
lymphangiectasia, lung lobe torsion, heartworm disease, cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, idiopathic, and
others.
If the triglyceride level of the effusion is greater than that of peripheral blood, this can help to
determine the effusion is chylous.
,The necropsy on this animal reveals a chylous effusion. Note the milky appearance of the fluid.
What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host of a parasite?
Answer: The parasite does not undergo development on the animal
A paratenic host is also known as a transport host. This indicates a type of intermediate host on which
a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. The definitive host harbors the adult,
sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a
parasite. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection
for people or domestic animals.
Canine parvovirus causes which of the following laboratory changes?
A.) Neutrophilia
B.) Neutropenia
C.) Hemolytic anemia
D.) Thrombocytopenia
Answer: Neutropenia
Parvoviral enteritis causes severe vomiting and diarrhea, which leads to dehydration and often sepsis
and fever. The sepsis (overwhelming infection) leads to a low neutrophil count.
In a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her,
you are most concerned about damage to which nerve?
Answer: Obturator
Obturator nerve paralysis (ONP) is most common. This nerve is responsible for adducting the hind
limbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs. During
birthing, this nerve can become crushed and lead to this problem.
Which of the following tests would be most helpful in the diagnosis of feline pancreatitis?
A.) Serum glucose
B.) Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (PLI)
C.) Serum amylase
D.) Serum lipase
Answer: Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (PLI)
Amylase and lipase are not sufficiently sensitive or specific in the cat to diagnose pancreatitis, but PLI
has been shown to correlate very well with the presence and severity of pancreatitis in cats.
What technique should be used to obtain a lateral oblique radiograph of the left tympanic bulla?
Answer:
Patient should be placed in lateral recumbency, left side down; the skull should be rotated 20 degrees
towards the VD position
,Explanation - For a lateral oblique film of the tympanic bulla, the side to be imaged should be
positioned down (against the table). The Patient should be placed in lateral recumbency, and the skull
should be rotated 20 degrees towards the VD position. It is frequently useful to also obtain the same
view for the contralateral bulla for comparison and to evaluate if it is also affected.
What is most common anticoagulant used for hematology?
Answer: Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid
Explanation - The correct answer is Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid (EDTA). This is the anti-coagulant
found in "purple top" tubes. Gray top tubes contain sodium fluoride and are most often used for
accurate assessment of glucose levels. Blue top tubes contain sodium citrate and are used for
coagulation testing.
The veterinarian asks you to please administer an FVRCP vaccination to a cat that is boarding. Where
should you administer the vaccination?
Answer: Subcutaneous on the lateral aspect of a forelimb as distal as possible
Explanation - Because of the risk associated with feline vaccine-associated sarcomas, it is
recommended to give feline vaccines on the lateral aspect of a limb as distal as possible. The
intrascapular region and nape of the neck area should be avoided.
Which of the following medications requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in
humans?
A.) Famotidine
B.) Chloramphenicol
C.) Phenylpropanolamine
D.) Chlorpheniramine
E.) Metronidazole
Answer: Chloramphenicol
Explanation - Chloramphenicol can cause a rare reaction in people who are exposed to the drug
leading to aplastic anemia. Because of this, chloramphenicol is typically used as a last resort and only
in special situations. Direct contact with the drug should be avoided and therefore gloves must be
worn when handling. The tablets should never by crushed to avoid inhalation of any powder.
Which of the following correctly indicates where electrons are generated in an x-ray machine?
A.) At the filament of the anode
B.) At the target of the anode
C.) At the filament of the cathode
D.) At the target of the cathode
Answer: At the filament of the cathode
Explanation - The cathode flament of the x-ray machine is where electrons are generated. The kVp
applied directs those electrons to the anode, where they hit a tungsten target to produce x-rays.
, In normal occlusion, what is the proper position of the incisors and canine teeth when the mouth is
closed?
Answer:
Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the
maxillary canine
Explanation - In normal occlusion, the mandibular incisors are palatal (behind) the maxillary incisors,
and the coronal third of the mandibular incisors rests on a smooth convex bulge on the maxillary
incisors known as the cingulum. The mandibular canines should be centered between the maxillary
third incisor and the maxillary canine (mesial to the maxillary canine), without touching either tooth.
We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type IV hypersensitivity, also known as delayed type
hypersensitivity, as a result of a T-cell response to an antigen?
A.) Glomerulonephritis
B.) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C.) Contact allergy to plastic
D.) Atopy
Answer: Contact allergy to plastic
Explanation - There are 4 types of hypersensitivity. Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and
results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen.
Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated
hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is
autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and
occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems.
Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed
hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain
contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).
Which of the following scenarios describes the proper care of surgical instruments?
A.) Place instruments in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and rinse to remove and debris and
residue. Place instruments in ultrasonic cleaner for 10 minutes. Let instruments dry.
B.) Rinse the instruments to remove the debris and residue. Place in an ultrasonic cleaner for 30
minutes. Then place the instruments in surgical milk. After removing instruments from the surgical
milk rinse them again.
C.) Place instruments in ultrasonic cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Rinse instruments with
distilled water and scrub as necessary. Place instruments in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk
and let instruments dry.
D.) Pre-rinse the instruments immediately after surgery to remove residues. Place in ultrasonic
cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Place in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and let
instruments dry.
Answer: Pre-rinse the instruments immediately after surgery to remove residues. Place in ultrasonic
cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Place in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and let
instruments dry.
You are asked to run an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip on a pet. There are three leads on your
machine. One is white, one is black, and one is red. Where should these be placed?
Answer: White: right forelimb, black: left forelimb, red: left hindlimb
Explanation - White= right front
Black= left front
Red= left hind
Green (if present)= right hind
The easy ways to remember these: You read your newspaper in the morning (black and white towards
front of pet), Christmas comes at the end of the year (red and green towards the rear of pet). In right
lateral recumbency: snow (white) and grass (green) are on the ground so are on the right side down
towards the table. White also rhymes with right.
A horse with flared nostrils and a heave line from the tuber coxae towards the elbow with forced
expiration likely has which of the following conditions?
A.) Congestive heart failure
B.) Obstructive airway disease
C.) Lead poisoning
D.) Laminitis
Answer: Obstructive airway disease
These symptoms are typical of a horse with chronic increased respiratory effort. Coughing, weight
loss, lack of energy, and exercise intolerance are also signs of this condition, termed "chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease" (COPD). It is more common in older horses that are stabled during
winter months. It is helpful to turn these horses out to pasture to help control the disease. COPD is
similar to asthma in humans.
A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following?
A.) Chylothorax
B.) Pyothorax
C.) Pericardial effusion
D.) Hemoabdomen
Answer: Chylothorax
Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if
the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma-related). The effusion typically appears as a milky
white fluid and is odorless. This is only one cause of chylothorax. Other causes include
lymphangiectasia, lung lobe torsion, heartworm disease, cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, idiopathic, and
others.
If the triglyceride level of the effusion is greater than that of peripheral blood, this can help to
determine the effusion is chylous.
,The necropsy on this animal reveals a chylous effusion. Note the milky appearance of the fluid.
What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host of a parasite?
Answer: The parasite does not undergo development on the animal
A paratenic host is also known as a transport host. This indicates a type of intermediate host on which
a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. The definitive host harbors the adult,
sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a
parasite. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection
for people or domestic animals.
Canine parvovirus causes which of the following laboratory changes?
A.) Neutrophilia
B.) Neutropenia
C.) Hemolytic anemia
D.) Thrombocytopenia
Answer: Neutropenia
Parvoviral enteritis causes severe vomiting and diarrhea, which leads to dehydration and often sepsis
and fever. The sepsis (overwhelming infection) leads to a low neutrophil count.
In a cow that is having difficulty calving and seems to have her legs splaying out from underneath her,
you are most concerned about damage to which nerve?
Answer: Obturator
Obturator nerve paralysis (ONP) is most common. This nerve is responsible for adducting the hind
limbs and runs from the spinal cord into the birth canal before it innervates the inner thighs. During
birthing, this nerve can become crushed and lead to this problem.
Which of the following tests would be most helpful in the diagnosis of feline pancreatitis?
A.) Serum glucose
B.) Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (PLI)
C.) Serum amylase
D.) Serum lipase
Answer: Serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (PLI)
Amylase and lipase are not sufficiently sensitive or specific in the cat to diagnose pancreatitis, but PLI
has been shown to correlate very well with the presence and severity of pancreatitis in cats.
What technique should be used to obtain a lateral oblique radiograph of the left tympanic bulla?
Answer:
Patient should be placed in lateral recumbency, left side down; the skull should be rotated 20 degrees
towards the VD position
,Explanation - For a lateral oblique film of the tympanic bulla, the side to be imaged should be
positioned down (against the table). The Patient should be placed in lateral recumbency, and the skull
should be rotated 20 degrees towards the VD position. It is frequently useful to also obtain the same
view for the contralateral bulla for comparison and to evaluate if it is also affected.
What is most common anticoagulant used for hematology?
Answer: Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid
Explanation - The correct answer is Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid (EDTA). This is the anti-coagulant
found in "purple top" tubes. Gray top tubes contain sodium fluoride and are most often used for
accurate assessment of glucose levels. Blue top tubes contain sodium citrate and are used for
coagulation testing.
The veterinarian asks you to please administer an FVRCP vaccination to a cat that is boarding. Where
should you administer the vaccination?
Answer: Subcutaneous on the lateral aspect of a forelimb as distal as possible
Explanation - Because of the risk associated with feline vaccine-associated sarcomas, it is
recommended to give feline vaccines on the lateral aspect of a limb as distal as possible. The
intrascapular region and nape of the neck area should be avoided.
Which of the following medications requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in
humans?
A.) Famotidine
B.) Chloramphenicol
C.) Phenylpropanolamine
D.) Chlorpheniramine
E.) Metronidazole
Answer: Chloramphenicol
Explanation - Chloramphenicol can cause a rare reaction in people who are exposed to the drug
leading to aplastic anemia. Because of this, chloramphenicol is typically used as a last resort and only
in special situations. Direct contact with the drug should be avoided and therefore gloves must be
worn when handling. The tablets should never by crushed to avoid inhalation of any powder.
Which of the following correctly indicates where electrons are generated in an x-ray machine?
A.) At the filament of the anode
B.) At the target of the anode
C.) At the filament of the cathode
D.) At the target of the cathode
Answer: At the filament of the cathode
Explanation - The cathode flament of the x-ray machine is where electrons are generated. The kVp
applied directs those electrons to the anode, where they hit a tungsten target to produce x-rays.
, In normal occlusion, what is the proper position of the incisors and canine teeth when the mouth is
closed?
Answer:
Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the
maxillary canine
Explanation - In normal occlusion, the mandibular incisors are palatal (behind) the maxillary incisors,
and the coronal third of the mandibular incisors rests on a smooth convex bulge on the maxillary
incisors known as the cingulum. The mandibular canines should be centered between the maxillary
third incisor and the maxillary canine (mesial to the maxillary canine), without touching either tooth.
We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type IV hypersensitivity, also known as delayed type
hypersensitivity, as a result of a T-cell response to an antigen?
A.) Glomerulonephritis
B.) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C.) Contact allergy to plastic
D.) Atopy
Answer: Contact allergy to plastic
Explanation - There are 4 types of hypersensitivity. Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and
results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen.
Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated
hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is
autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and
occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems.
Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed
hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain
contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).
Which of the following scenarios describes the proper care of surgical instruments?
A.) Place instruments in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and rinse to remove and debris and
residue. Place instruments in ultrasonic cleaner for 10 minutes. Let instruments dry.
B.) Rinse the instruments to remove the debris and residue. Place in an ultrasonic cleaner for 30
minutes. Then place the instruments in surgical milk. After removing instruments from the surgical
milk rinse them again.
C.) Place instruments in ultrasonic cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Rinse instruments with
distilled water and scrub as necessary. Place instruments in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk
and let instruments dry.
D.) Pre-rinse the instruments immediately after surgery to remove residues. Place in ultrasonic
cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Place in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and let
instruments dry.
Answer: Pre-rinse the instruments immediately after surgery to remove residues. Place in ultrasonic
cleaner for approximately 10 minutes. Place in surgical milk. Remove from surgical milk and let
instruments dry.
