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Women's Health Exam Practice questions with 100% correct answers 2024.

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VAGINITIS DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT Organism Discharge Odor Microscopy pH Treatment Bacterial vaginosis Thin, gray, homogeneous Fishy with positive "whif test" Clue cells 4.5 Metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days or clindamycin 300 mg BID × 7 days or topical metronidazole 1 applicatorful intravaginally daily × 5 days (lower success rate) Candida Adherent, white, "cottage cheese" like Neutral Pseudohyphae but only 65-85% sensitive 4.5 Fluconazole oral, topical clotrimazole, miconazole, etc. Trichomonas Copious yellow, gray, green, foamy. Friable "strawberry" cervix Malodorous Trichomonads 4.5 Metronidazole 2 g PO once (recommended), or 500 mg BID × 7 days (alternative) - correct answer HELPFUL TIP: The most recent evidence points to insulin resistance as the underlying cause of PCOS, and these patients may have acanthosis nigricans. Insulin resistance can be quantified by calculating the ratio of fasting glucose to insulin. A ratio of less than 4.5 indicates insulin resistance. Insulin resistance stimulates ovarian androgen production, which leads to anovulation. HELPFUL TIP: As with other STIs, a patient with Trichomonas should have her partner tested and treated (or just treated depending whether or not this is allowable under your state law). HELPFUL TIP: While it makes sense that single-dose azithromycin would work better in treating Chlamydial cervicitis because of compliance issues, the cure rate is the same whether azithromycin or the doxycycline is used. There is about a 3% failure rate with azithromycin which isn't seen with doxycycline. HELPFUL TIP: For hirsutism associated with PCOS, - correct answer Question 1: A 16-year-old female presents with her mother. They don't look happy. Her mother says, "She needs a Pap smear because she's been having sex with a couple of boys—in my house, I will have you know—for a year!" The patient rolls her eyes. Consistent with published guidelines, you recommend: A Pap smear B Gonorrhea and chlamydia testing C Pap smear and gonorrhea and chlamydia testing D Return for a Pap after sexually active for 3 years (age 18 for this patient) E A chastity belt Explanation: The correct answer is "B." It is now recommended to delay cervical cancer screening until age 21, even if the woman has been sexually active. The reasoning: although adolescent females are frequently infected with HPV, they also easily clear these infections, with 95% of lesions spontaneously regressing. Exceptions to this rule include patients who are immunocompromised (e.g., organ transplant, HIV infection). - correct answer A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of increased vaginal discharge, milky gray in color with a "fishy" odor that both she and her husband have noticed. A wet smear is performed and the presence of "clue cells" confirmed. Which type of infection does the nurse suspect?

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Women's Health Exam Practice
questions with 100% correct answers
2024




VAGINITIS DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT
Organism Discharge Odor Microscopy pH Treatment

Bacterial vaginosis Thin, gray, homogeneous Fishy with positive "whif test" Clue
cells >4.5 Metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days or clindamycin 300 mg BID × 7 days
or topical metronidazole 1 applicatorful intravaginally daily × 5 days (lower success
rate)

Candida Adherent, white, "cottage cheese" like Neutral Pseudohyphae but only 65-
85% sensitive <4.5 Fluconazole oral, topical clotrimazole, miconazole, etc.

Trichomonas Copious yellow, gray, green, foamy. Friable "strawberry" cervix
Malodorous Trichomonads >4.5
Metronidazole 2 g PO once (recommended), or 500 mg
BID × 7 days (alternative) - correct answer

HELPFUL TIP:
The most recent evidence points to insulin resistance as the underlying cause of
PCOS, and these patients may have acanthosis nigricans. Insulin resistance can be
quantified by calculating the ratio of fasting glucose to insulin. A ratio of less than 4.5
indicates insulin resistance. Insulin resistance stimulates ovarian androgen
production, which leads to anovulation.

HELPFUL TIP:
As with other STIs, a patient with Trichomonas should have her partner tested and
treated (or just treated depending whether or not this is allowable under your state
law).

HELPFUL TIP:
While it makes sense that single-dose azithromycin would work better in treating
Chlamydial cervicitis because of compliance issues, the cure rate is the same
whether azithromycin or the doxycycline is used. There is about a 3% failure rate
with azithromycin which isn't seen with doxycycline.

HELPFUL TIP:
For hirsutism associated with PCOS, - correct answer

,Women's Health Exam Practice
questions with 100% correct answers
2024




Question 1:
A 16-year-old female presents with her mother. They don't look happy. Her mother
says, "She needs a Pap smear because she's been having sex with a couple of boys
—in my house, I will have you know—for a year!" The patient rolls her eyes.

Consistent with published guidelines, you recommend:

A
Pap smear

B
Gonorrhea and chlamydia testing

C
Pap smear and gonorrhea and chlamydia testing

D
Return for a Pap after sexually active for 3 years (age 18 for this patient)

E
A chastity belt

Explanation:
The correct answer is "B." It is now recommended to delay cervical cancer screening
until age 21, even if the woman has been sexually active. The reasoning: although
adolescent females are frequently infected with HPV, they also easily clear these
infections, with 95% of lesions spontaneously regressing. Exceptions to this rule
include patients who are immunocompromised (e.g., organ transplant, HIV infection).
- correct answer

A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of increased vaginal
discharge, milky gray in color with a "fishy" odor that both she and her husband have
noticed. A wet smear is performed and the presence of "clue cells" confirmed. Which
type of infection does the nurse suspect?
1

,Women's Health Exam Practice
questions with 100% correct answers
2024




Candidiasis
2
Trichomoniasis
3
Bacterial vaginosis
4
Group B Streptococcus - correct answer-Bacterial vaginosis

Signs of bacterial vaginosis include a milky gray vaginal discharge that has a
characteristic fishy odor. "Clue cells" noted on wet smear are indicative of BV.
Candidiasis is a yeast infection caused by the organism Candida albicans. The most
common symptom of a yeast infection is vulvar and vaginal pruritus. Vaginal
discharge in a candidal infection is thick, white, and lumpy. A woman with a
trichomoniasis infection may present with a frothy yellowish-green vaginal discharge.
Vulvar irritation, pruritus, and dyspareunia are usually present. Group B
Streptococcus may be considered part of the normal vaginal flora in a woman who is
not pregnant, and no treatment is necessary.

A 20-year-old woman visiting the clinic says that she wishes to begin using depot
medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera) as a form of birth control. What
important information should the nurse include when teaching the client about Depo-
Provera?
1
Depo-Provera offers protection against the herpes simplex virus.
2
To continue the contraceptive effects the client will need to return for another
injection in 6 months.
3
Women using Depo-Provera may lose more blood each month with their periods, so
it is important to add iron-rich foods to the diet to help prevent anemia.
4
Calcium intake and exercise should be increased because of possible loss of bone
mineral density with increasing duration of use - correct answer-Calcium intake and
exercise should be increased because of possible loss of bone mineral density with
increasing duration of use

, Women's Health Exam Practice
questions with 100% correct answers
2024




Loss of bone mineral density is a significant side effect of Depo-Provera, and
increased calcium intake and exercise should be encouraged. Depo-Provera should
be administered every 11 to 13 weeks; 6 months is too long before the next dose.
Menstrual periods usually lighten or disappear over time. Depo-Provera confers no
protection against herpes simplex virus.

A 24-year-old woman wants to use her basal body temperature (BBT) in natural
family planning but is unsure when to take her temperature. The nurse informs her
that an accurate BBT is best taken:
1
Each night right before bed
2
On the first day of her next menstrual cycle
3
Each morning prior to getting out of bed or increasing her activity
4
At bedtime beginning on day 14 of her menstrual cycle and continuing until her next
period - correct answer-Each morning prior to getting out of bed or increasing her
activity

The most accurate BBT is taken before a woman gets out of bed and begins any
type of activity that could increase the body's temperature even slightly. BBT should
be charted daily on a calendar to permit interpretation of temperature fluctuations. A
BBT taken in the evening may be increased after a day of activity. Daily assessment
and recording of BBT during the first half of the menstrual cycle is also crucial,
because a woman's BBT is lower then than during the second half of her cycle. The
BBT temperature may rise slightly with ovulation.

A 37-year-old woman is admitted to the unit with severe menorrhagia. During
assessment the nurse learns that she has a history of fibroids, menorrhagia, pelvic
pain, and depression. The client has been undergoing hormone therapy in hopes of
easing the symptoms and reducing the size of the fibroids, without success. The lab
reports hemoglobin and hematocrit readings of 6.8 and 20.2, respectively. The client
begins to sob and cries, "I don't know what to do—the doctor is recommending a
hysterectomy, but I haven't had children yet!" What is the best response by the
nurse?

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