NY Home Improvement Contractor Exam with correct answers graded A+

After a patient undergoes a thoracentesis, the respiratory therapist notes that the obtained pleural fluid is clear with a slight straw color. This fluid is most likely the result of A. empyema. B. congestive heart failure. C. lung carcinoma. D. hemothorax. - correct answer Congestive Heart Failure The respiratory therapist is calibrating a spirometer and checking the volume with a 3.0 liter super syringe. the volumes recorded are 2.85L, 2.8L and 2.8L. Based upon the information obtained, which of the following is a correct statement? A. Another syringe needs to be used B. Spirometer is accurate C. The plunger was advanced too slowly D. Spirometer may have a leak - correct answer D. Spirometer may have a leak Which of the following is an indication for high frequency jet ventilation? A. Bronchopleural fistula B. Wilson Mikity syndrome C Necrotizing lesion of right lung D. Centrilobular emphysema - correct answer Bronchopleural Fistula **(because it uses mean airway pressures & low tidal volumes to improve oxygenation and we do not want to worsen bp fistula) A 43 y/o female patient has just undergone a total abdominal hysterectomy. The pt arrives in the post anesthesia care unit obtunded with minimal response to painful stimulus. what treatment should the RT recommend for this pt? - correct answer Insert OPA (b/c they are unresponsive) What is the normal VD/VT ratio for a patient breathing room air? - correct answer 20-40% All of the following could cause a patient's right-hemidiaphragm to be elevated, EXCEPT: A. right lower lobe atelectasis B. right side hyperlucency, absent vascular markings C. hepatomegaly D. right lower lobe consolidation with air bronchograms - correct answer B. right side hyperlucency, absent vascular markings (pneumothorax) A 2 y/o child with croup has been intubated for 4 days with a 4mm ID uncuffed ETT. Heated aerosol at an FiO2 of 30% has been delivered to the patient. The physician asks the RT to evaluate the pt for possible extubation. Which of the following would most likely indicate that the pt is ready for extubation? A. Pt is making normal quiet ventilatory efforts B. Negative sputum culture and sensitivity has been reported C. Pt's ABG are within normal range D. Breath sounds are heard around the tube on auscultation - correct answer D. Breath sounds are heard around the tube on auscultation A pt is senn inthe ER for complaints of nausea and vomiting. A NGT has been inserted and the pt is started on lasix. Which of the following should the RT monitor? A. Cardiac enzymes B. Serum electrolytes C. ABG D. Cell hydration level - correct answer B. Serum electrolytes (because of loss of fluids) While instructing a pt prior to a vital capacity maneuver, the RT should direct the pt to: A. exhale to RV and inhale to IC B. inhale to TLC then exhale to RV C. exhale normally then inhale to TLC D. inhale normally then exhale to FRC - correct answer B. inhale to TLC then exhale to RV A 77 y/o male patient is admitted to the ER with shortness of breath, fine basilar crackles, +2 pitting edema and a chest X-ray with a butterfly pattern. These results are most consistent with which of the following? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema C. Pneumothorax D. Emphysema - correct answer A. Pulmonary edema (and CHF!) Which of the formula will determine the total flow being delivered to a pt with a 28% venturi mask running at 6 L/min? - correct answer Total flow = 6 x 11 (flow factor for 28% = 10:1 = 11) A pt with end-stage pulmonary fibrosis is receiving O2 at 2L/min via a transtracheal oxygen catheter. The pt experiences an increased WOB and shortness of breath. The RT should do what? - correct answer Flush the transtracheal device with isotonic saline During bedside monitoring the RT notices a dampened waveform on the arterial line graphic. To restore the graphic to normal, what should the RT do? - correct answer Check the transducer dome for air bubbles An optimal PEEP study is initiated on a pt receiving mechanical ventilation. The RT first places the pt on a PEEP of 10 cm H20 for 20 mins with no adverse effects. The PEEP is increased to 15cm H20 and the pt's HR rises significantly with a severe fall in the BP. Based upon the above info, what should the RT conclude that the pt is suffering from? - correct answer Hypovolemia A post-op thoracotomy pt is receiving incentive spirometry therapy Q2H. Breath sounds are diminished in the bases of the lungs with scattered crackles. the pt's inspiratory capacity has decreased over the past 2 days. A chest X-ray indicates thin-layered basilar densities. Which of the following has most likely occured? A. Atelectasis B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary Edema D. Consolidation - correct answer A. Atelectasis The RT is in charge of transporting a pt with multiple trauma to a regional trauma center in a fixed wing aircraft. Which of the following should the RT be most concerned about during the transport? A. Tissue oxygenation B. Pneumothorax C. Pulmonary embolus D. Humidification of the inspired gas - correct answer Tissue oxygenation Transcutaneous monitoring of PO2 values will correlate well with ABG PO2 values in which of the following situations? (Pick all that apply) A. Hypotension B. Hypothermia C. Pneumonia - correct answer Pneumonia only What is the air-to-oxygen ratio for an air entrainment device delivering 60% oxygen? - correct answer 1:1 Following surgery to correct an abdominal aortic aneurysm, a 54 y/o female pt suddenly develops intense substernal chest pain with severe dyspnea. the pain does not appear to be aggravated by her respiratioins. Auscultation reveals bilateral, basilar, moist, crepitant rales. The pt appears pale, cold and clammy. which of the following should the RT recommend for initial assessment of this pt? A. Serum electrolytes B. Chest X-ray C. Complete blood count D. Elecrocardiograph - correct answer D. Electrocardiograph An adult pt is intubated with 7.0mm ID ETT. What size suction catheter should be used to suction this pt? - correct answer 10 Fr (7/2 x3) A pt who is suspected of having a flail chest has been intubated and mechanically ventilated with PEEP therapy. The pt has just received pancuronium bromide. Which of the following ventilator alarms would be most important to set correctly for this pt? A. Peak pressure alarm B. Low PEEP pressure alarm C. I:E ratio alarm D. Low exhaled volume alarm - correct answer B. Low PEEP pressure alarm A balloon-tipped, flow directed catheter is positioned in the pulmonary artery with the balloon DEFLATED. Which of the following pressures will be measured by the DISTAL lumen? - correct answer PAP the RT receives an order to administer bronchodilator therapy with albuterol. To reduce the chance of cross contamination, the RT should - correct answer Select a meter dose inhaler Which of the following is a FALSE statement about self-inflating resuscitation devices? A. A reservoir is utilized to increase the delivered oxygen concentration B. The RT can sense changes in the pt's lung compliance and airway resistance C. A compressed gas source is necessary for the device to operate. D. Excessive gas flow may cause the valve to malfunction. - correct answer A compressed gas source is necessary for the device to operate How are spontaneous sighs accounted for in mechanical ventilation? - correct answer Because a spontaneously breathing individual typically sighs 6-8 times each hour to prevent microatelectasis, some investigators once recommended that periodic machine breaths that were 1.5-2 times the preset tidal volume be given 6-8 times per hour. However, the peak pressure often needed to deliver such a volume was high enough to predispose the patient to barotrauma. At present, accounting for sighs is not recommended if the patient is receiving tidal volumes of 10-12 mL/kg or if the patient requires PEEP. When a low tidal volume is used, sighs are preset at 1.5-2 times the tidal volume and delivered 6-8 times an hour if the peak and plateau pressures are within acceptable limits. A patient has just been intubated with a naso- tracheal tube and is being manually ventilated. As the therapist ventilates the patient, he notices that there is no chest movement, minimal breath sounds and air escaping from the mouth as the bag is squeezed. A chest x-ray has determined that the endotracheal tube is in the correct position. What is the most likely cause of this situation? - correct answer The cuff ruptured during intubation The therapist receives an order for postural drainage and vibration. With the bed flat, the therapist places the patient in a prone position with pillows under his hips. Which lung segments are being treated with this position? - correct answer Superior segment of the lower lobes While using a pressure-cycled ventilator, an increase in the patient's static lung compliance will do what? - correct answer Increase the volume A patient is receiving controlled ventilation via a Bird Mark 7 ventilator. Suddenly, the ventilator will not cycle into expiration. This problem may be caused by: 1. development of pneumothorax. 2. disconnected expiratory valve. 3. leak in the patient tubing. 4. ruptured endotracheal tube cuff. - correct answer 2. disconnected expiratory valve. 3. leak in the patient tubing. 4. ruptured endotracheal tube cuff. Which of the following will increase the volume delivered to a patient on a pressure limited ventilator? 1. Decreasing the sensitivity 2. Increasing the flow setting 3. Decreasing the flow setting 4. Increasing the pressure setting - correct answer 3. Decreasing the flow setting 4. Increasing the pressure setting A patient has been weaned from mechanical ventilation. The physician would like the patient's respiratory muscle strength evaluated to determine further weanability. The therapist should evaluate which of the following? 1. VDNT 2. VE 3. MIP 4. CST 5. VC - correct answer 3. MIP 5. VC A patient has reduced lung compliance. Which of the following approaches to ventilation would decrease the risk of barotrauma? - correct answer Flow cycled, pressure limited A change in airway resistance would be reflected by a change in what? - correct answer Dynamic Compliance The first parameter to measure when a mechanically ventilated patient is placed on PEEP is? - correct answer Compliance A patient with tachypnea and a history of COPD is in the Emergency Room complaining of dyspnea. The ER physician orders oxygen therapy at an FI02 of 0.28. Which of the following devices would be most appropriate for this patient? - correct answer Venturi Mask (AEM) A patient has been sent to Radiology for a PET scan. The patient is on oxygen at 5 Llmin. from an E cylinder reading 1500 psi. How long will the E cylinder last if run until empty? - correct answer 90 mins A premature infant has difficulty with oxygenation. The physician asks the respiratory therapist to rule out a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following methods would be most appropriate? - correct answer Compare the right upper chest TcP02 to the abdominal TcP02 While attempting to calibrate a polarographic oxygen analyzer, the therapist notices that the analyzer reads 21 % when exposed to room air but only reads 64% when exposed to 100% oxygen. What would the most appropriate action at this time be? - correct answer Change the battery A heat moisture exchanger (HME) is being utilized in a ventilator circuit. The therapist notices that the device has become clogged with secretions. The therapist should do what? - correct answer Change to a wick humidifier Which of the following techniques measures total lung capacity? 1. Helium dilution 2. Body plethysmograph 3. Single Breath Nitrogen Elimination - correct answer 1. Helium dilution 2. Body plethysmograph Which of the following drugs will lower blood pressure and decrease right ventricular preload by direct vasodilation? A. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) B. norepinephrine (Levophed) C. propranolol (Inderal) D. hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril) - correct answer A. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) All of the following statements are true concerning NPPV ventilation EXCEPT: A. breaths are pressure controlled. B. two levels of CPAP are applied. C. breaths are flow triggered. D. it can be used for non-invasive ventilation. - correct answer A. breaths are pressure controlled. What is the correct formula to measure the static lung compliance of a patient on a volume-limited ventilator? - correct answer tidal volume + (plateau pressure - PEEP) Which artery should a therapist palpate when deciding whether to initiate chest compressions on an adult patient? - correct answer carotid The distribution of ventilation in the lungs is measured by: 1. Phase III of the SBN2 Elimination Test 2. N2 wash out time 3. Ventilation lung scan - correct answer 1. Phase III of the SBN2 Elimination Test 2. N2 wash out time 3. Ventilation lung scan Measurement of the PD20% is significant for which of the following? - correct answer Airway hyperreactivity A patient's chest x-ray reveals increased vascular engorgement emanating from the hilar area in a bat-wing pattern. What is the most likely cause of this finding? - correct answer Fluid overload During bedside assessment, the therapist auscultates the patient's chest and determines that the patient has bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. This would imply the patient has - correct answer bronchospasm. Which of the following pieces of equipment would be LEAST appropriate for the victim of a house fire? A. Pulse oximeter B. Non-rebreather mask C. Arterial blood gas kit D. CPAP system - correct answer A. Pulse oximeter A therapist obtains the following information from a patient: - Age 35 - HR 98 - f 22/min - Vt 200 mL - 68 kg/mL - Ht 5'11" A. has an increased deadspace to tidal volume ratio. B. has a 30% intrapulmonary shunt. C. is breathing effectively. D. should be started on oxygen therapy - correct answer A. has an increased deadspace to tidal volume ratio. When the FI02 setting on a large volume nebulizer is changed from 40% to 60%, which of the following will occur? 1. Total flow to the patient will increase 2. More air will be entrained through the nebulizer 3. The density of the aerosol will increase - correct answer 3. The density of the aerosol will increase A patient with chronic bronchitis is to receive therapy to help remove a large amount of thick purulent secretions. Which of the following devices would be most helpful? 1. mechanical percussor 2. incentive spirometer 3. heated humidifier 4. ultrasonic nebulizer - correct answer 1. mechanical percussor 4. ultrasonic nebulizer A patient has a tracheostomy tube in place. The measured cuff pressure is 28 torr. Which of the following statements is/are true of this situation? 1. The pressure is appropriate for minimal tracheal occlusion. 2. This pressure will most likely cause arterial occlusion. 3. At this pressure, only lymphatic flow will be affected. 4. The pressure will cause tracheal necrosis if maintained. - correct answer 2. This pressure will most likely cause arterial occlusion. 4. The pressure will cause tracheal necrosis if maintained. A pressure-cycled ventilator being used for continuous ventilation fails to cycle into inspiration. This might be caused by: 1. Sensitivity set too high 2. Failure of apnea control 3. An obstruction in the system 4. Expiratory line disconnected - correct answer 2. Failure of apnea control 4. Expiratory line disconnected Proper instruction for a post-op appendectomy patient receiving incentive spirometry therapy would include: 1. Deep inspirations 2. Inspiratory hold 3. Strong cough effort 4. Pursed lip breathing - correct answer 1. Deep inspirations 2. Inspiratory hold 3. Strong cough effort A patient with an artificial airway in place is being ventilated with a pressure cycled ventilator that will not cycle off at end- inspiration. What is the most likely problem? - correct answer the cuff has ruptured A change in airway resistance would be reflected by a change in: A. dynamic compliance. B. thoracic compliance. C. lung compliance. D. static compliance. - correct answer A. dynamic compliance. The first parameter to measure when a mechanically ventilated patient is placed on PEEP is: A. respiratory rate and cardiac rate. B. compliance. C. airway resistance. D. Pa02. - correct answer B. compliance. Which of the following would NOT occur when increasing the flowrate on a constant flow, volume-cycled ventilator that is in the control mode? A. inspiratory time would decrease B. the I:E ratio would change C. the expiratory time would increase D. The minute ventilation would increase - correct answer D. The minute ventilation would increase During resuscitation efforts, the therapist notes that the resuscitation bag collapses easily when squeezed and there is no evidence of chest expansion. What would cause this to occur? A. A decrease in compliance B. An increase in airway resistance C. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus D. Malfunctioning inlet valve - correct answer D. Malfunctioning inlet valve A patient has been sent to Radiology for a PET scan. The patient is on oxygen at 5L/min. from an E cylinder reading 1500 psi. How long will the E cylinder last if run until empty? - correct answer 90 minutes A patient being weaned from mechanical ventilation has had his minute ventilation reduced from 12 L/min to 8 L/min. Which of the following would be the best indicator that this patient should not be weaned at this time? A. Hyperventilation reducing PaC02 level B. Patient becomes agitated and combative C. Low pressure alarm is activated D. Low exhaled volume alarm sounds every breath - correct answer D. Low exhaled volume alarm sounds every breath To reduce the chance of transmitting an infection from patient to patient, the therapist should: A. wear gloves when dealing with patients. B. wear goggles when dealing with body fluids. C. wipe stethoscope with alcohol between patients. D. sterilize equipment with ethylene oxide. - correct answer C. wipe stethoscope with alcohol between patients. The respiratory therapist has analyzed the FI02 of a patient receiving 40% O2 via an aerosol mask. The therapist notes that the analyzed FI02 is 38%. The therapist should: A. re-analyze the F102. B. record the reading. C. re-calibrate the analyzer. D. increase the FI02 by 2%. - correct answer B. record the reading. While conducting oxygen rounds, the therapist notices that there is no mist coming from the reservoir tubing on a Briggs adapter. What action should the therapist take at this time? A. Decrease the flow B. Increase the dilution control setting on the nebulizer from 40% to 60% C. Check the function of the capillary tube D. Add an additional 6 inches of reservoir pH tubing to the Briggs adaptor - correct answer C. Check the function of the capillary tube A patient with Myasthenia Gravis is being evaluated for removal of his fenestrated tracheostomy tube. The inner cannula is removed and the tube has been plugged. While examining the patient, the therapist notes that the patient is having difficulty swallowing and handling secretions, increased muscle weakness and a weak cough. Which of the following should the therapist consider at this time? A. Replace the inner cannula and support ventilation. B. Insert a tracheal button. C. Remove the tracheostomy tube. D. Suction the patient's upper airway. - correct answer A. Replace the inner cannula and support ventilation. The therapist has initiated ultrasonic therapy with 0.45% saline for a patient with bronchial pneumonia. After approximately 5 minutes of the treatment the patient begins to complain of shortness of breath. Upon auscultation the therapist notes severely diminished breath sounds and rhonchi. The patient is cyanotic, tachypneic, tachycardic, and retracting. Which of the following should the therapist perform first? A. Suction the patient immediately B. Start O2 per nasal cannula at 4 LPM C. Give a stat racemic epinephrine treatment D. Intubate and mechanically ventilate - correct answer A. Suction the patient immediately The therapist is verifying the ventilator parameters on a patient being ventilated by volume cycled ventilator. He notices that the exhaled tidal volume is 200 mL and the ordered tidal volume is 750 mL. The cuff pressure is 5 mmHg. After insertion of 10 cc of air, the cuff pressure is still 5 mmHg. Which of the following should the therapist do at this time? A. Obtain a stat chest x-ray B. Extubate and reintubate C. Increase the FI02 to 1.0 D. Insert 10 cc of air into the cuff - correct answer B. Extubate and reintubate A patient's x-ray shows diffuse infiltrates in the lower lobes, auscultation reveals coarse rhonchi and rales bilaterally, and has a slight temperature is noted. Which of the following should the therapist recommend to improve her ventilation? A. Ultrasonic nebulizer B. Pulmonary drainage and percussion C. Continuous ventilation D. Oxygen therapy - correct answer B. Pulmonary drainage and percussion The peak inspiratory pressure on a pressure-cycled ventilator is 30 cm H20. The RT decreases the inspiratory flow. This change would affect the: A. Respiratory Rate B. PEEP C. Expiratory time D. I:E ratio - correct answer I:E ratio A patient recently underwent a coronary artery bypass and is now receiving Incentive Spirometry QID. The patient's inspiratory capacity has diminished over the past several days and the patient is becoming increasingly short of breath. Chest radiograph shows left lower lobe consolidation with air bronchograms. What would the RT conclude that the patient has developed? - correct answer Pneumonia Which device would produce the greatest humidity output for a patient? - correct answer Ultrasonic nebulizer A patient is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation though an oral ETT. the RT notes that the high pressure alarm sounds continuously during inspriation and the pt appears to be biting down on the ETT. Which of the following should the RT recommend? A. Change to a nasal ETT B. Add air to the cuff C. Add water to the humidifier D. Insert an OPA - correct answer D. Insert an OPA the physician informs the patient that the results of his polysomnogram indicate obstructive sleep apnea. Treatment for this disorder might include: A. Bronchial hygiene therapy B. Respiratory stimulants C. Tracheostomy D. Negative pressure ventilation - correct answer C. Tracheostomy Heliox therapy is indicated for treatment of patients with post extubation stridor because of the: A. Ability to effectively deliver B. Low density of the gas mixture C. High molecular weight of the gas mixture D. Low risk of bronchospasm - correct answer B. Low density of the gas mixture Which of the following would NOT be required to perform a nasal intubation? A. Magill forceps B. Stylet C. Laryngoscope D. ETT - correct answer B. Stylet A balloon-tipped, flow-directed catheter is positioned in the pulmonary artery with the balloon inflated. Which of the following pressures will be measured by the distal lumen? A. CVP B. PAP C. PCWP D. MAP - correct answer PCWP A patient is receiving 40% O2 via a Venturi mask at 8L/min. While performing O2 rounds, the RT notes that the flow meter setting has been changed to 12 L/min. How would this change affect the accuracy of this device? - correct answer FiO2 will remain unchanged A patient recently underwent a thoracotomy and is now receiving IPPB QID. The patient's inspiratory capacity has diminished over the past several days and the patient is becoming increasingly SOB. Chest X-ray shows left lower lobe radio density with a concave upper border. The ET would conclude that the patient has developed: A. Pleural effusion B. Atelectasis C. Pneumothorax D. Pneumonia - correct answer A. Pleural effusion A hyperresonant percussion note is associated with which of the following pathologies? A. Hemothorax B. Pleural effusion C. Tension Pneumothorax D. Chronic bronchitis - correct answer C. Tension Pneumothorax D. Chronic bronchitis How should the RT assemble a Bird Mark 7 respirator to deliver 40% O2 during an intermittent positive pressure breathing treatment? - correct answer Air-mix off and attached to a blender set at 40% A patient is being ventilated with a high frequency ventilator. The results of an ABG are as follows. pH: 7.29 PaCO2: 68 torr PaO2: 73 torr HCO3-: 25 mEq/L BE: +1 mEq/L What should the RT increase the: A. Driving Pressure B. Frequency C. Bias flow D. I:E ratio - correct answer A. Driving Pressure Which of the following could NOT cause a capnography reading to change from 36 torr to 30 torr? A. Tachypnea B. Hyperventilation C. Pulmonary emboli D. ETT positioned in the right mainstem bronchus - correct answer D. ETT positioned in the right mainstem bronchus A tracheostomy tube has just been changed on a patient receiving continuous volume-cycled ventilation. The patient suddenly becomes dyspneic and develops crepitus around the tracheostomy stoma. the RT should: A. suction the patient B. insert a larger tracheostomy tube C. reposition the tracheostomy tube D. recommend an antihistamine - correct answer C. reposition the tracheostomy tube The most common hazard associated with insertion of a central venous catheter is: A. PE B. Hypoxemia C. Rupture of the RA D. Pneumothorax - correct answer D. Pneumothorax During mechanical ventilation, a patient initiates the breath and then the ventilator controls the remaining variables for that breath. This describes a/an: A. Spontaneous breath B. Assisted breath C. Mandatory breath D. Supported breath - correct answer B. Assisted breath A 1600g neonate is receiving O2 by oxyhood at an FiO2 of 0.60. the flowmeter is set at 5L/min. While analyzing the O2, the RT notices varying FiO2 readings at a different locations inside the oxyhood. Which of the following should the RT do to correct the problem? A. Re-calibrate the O2 analyzing device B. Increase the flow to the oxyhood C. Place the neonate in an isolette at an FiO2 of 0.60 D. Check the water level of the humidifier - correct answer B. Increase the flow to the oxyhood A patient with chronic hypercapnia is brought into the ED. the history of the present illness revealed that the patient passed out at home. A pulmonary artery catheter has been placed with the following measurements obtained: PAP 25/10 mmHg BP 76/50 mmHg PCWP 4 mmHg SVR 1360 dynes CVP 0 mmHg CI 1.8L/min/m2 Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition? A. Hypovolemia B. Drug OD C. Cor pulmonale D. High FiO2 vasodilation - correct answer A. Hypovolemia Which of the following will give the most accurate measurement of volume and flow for spirometry? A. Collins water-sealed spirometry B. Vortex-shedding pneumotachometer C. Wright respirometer D. Dry-rolling spirometer - correct answer Collins water-sealed spirometry All of the flowing are TRUE statements about spacers and holding chambers EXCEPT: A. Do not require patient cooperation with their breathing pattern B. Improve the efficiency of an MDI C. Can be used for drug delivery by MDI to intubated and mechanically ventilated patients D. If a patient exhales immediately following activation of the inhaler, they will clear the medication from the device and waste the dose - correct answer A. Do not require patient cooperation with their breathing pattern A 19 y/o patient has a size 7 mm ID nasotracheal tube placed through the right nare. While attempting to suction the patient with a size 12 Fr catheter, resistance is met as the catheter is introduced into the ETT. The RT should: A. Lubricate the catheter with petroleum jelly prior to suctioning B. Instill acetylcysteine into the ETT C. Switch to a 10 Fr suction catheter D. Extubate the patient and reintubate with a size 9 mm ID ETT - correct answer C. Switch to a 10 Fr suction catheter A patient is receiving oxygen at home via NC at 1 L/min. He has 50 feet of extension tubing attached to his oxygen concentrator. The patient complains that there does not seem to be enough oxygen flow reaching the cannula. The RT should recommend: A. Decreasing the length of the extension tubing B. Increasing the concentrator flow C. Changing to a liquid system D. Analyzing the FiO2 - correct answer A. Decreasing the length of the extension tubing A 58 y/o male patient is hypoxic on volume control ventilation and is receiving 15 cm H20 of PEEP on an FiO2 0.60. Shortly after increasing the PEEP therapy to 18 cm H20, the RT notes that the systemic blood pressure has fallen from 110/72 mm Hg to 94/50 mm Hg and the cardiac output has fallen from 4.3 L/min to 2.5 L/min. The most appropriate action at this time would be to: A. maintain the present therapy and re-evaluate the patient in thirty minutes B. decrease the PEEP to 15 cm H20 and increase the FiO2 to 0.70 C. decrease the PEEP to 12 cm H20 and maintain the FiO2 at 0.60 D. discontinue the PEEP and increase the FiO2 to 0.80 - correct answer B. decrease the PEEP to 15 cm H20 and increase the FiO2 to 0.70 What is the correct formula to calculate the static lung compliance of a patient receiving mechanical ventilation? - correct answer Tidal volume / (plateau pressure - PEEP) All of the following statements regarding an O2 concentrator are correct EXCEPT: A. provides an unlimited supply of oxygen B. increases alveolar oxygen tension C. provides 100% oxygen at high flow rates D. removes nitrogen from the room air - correct answer C. provides 100% oxygen at high flow rates