OPOTA SPO's exam with correct answers 2024.

The relationship between an SPO and a test question is, - correct answer • The test question must respond directly to the SPO and for every SPO there is a test question. The ultimate reason for law enforcement training is - correct answer • To be able to protect the life and property of yourself and the public. The term role is defined as, - correct answer • Characteristics and expected social behavior of an individual. • Those behaviors typically performed by an individual in a particular situation or occupation. Occupational Roles are defined as, - correct answer • Behavior performed in the course of perusing one's job or vocation. - Role Conflict occurs when, - correct answer • The officer perceives a clash between competing perceptions, values, and standards when deciding what behavior is appropriate. The term Stress is defined as, - correct answer • A state of physical or Psychological arousal. • The wear and tear on the body. A Critical Incident is defined as, - correct answer • A Specific event which causes unusually strong emotional reaction and which has the potential to interfere with the ability to function either at the scene or later. The Four (4) categories of stress are, - correct answer 1. Cognitive 2. Physical 3. Emotional 4. Behavioral Initial Intervention Techniques are, - correct answer 1. Physical Exercises 2. Structured Time 3. Talk to Friends and Family 4. Eat Healthy Foods 5. Don't Make Life Changes - The ten (10) Community Policing Philosophies are, - correct answer 1. Community policing is both a philosophy and an organizational strategy that allows the police and community residents to work closely together in a new way to solve the problems of crime, fear of crime, physical and social disorder, and neighborhood decay. 2. Community policing organizational strategy first demands that everyone in the department, including both civilian and sworn personal, must investigate ways to translate the philosophy into practice. 3. To implement true community policing, Police departments must also create and develop a new breed of line officer, the Community Policing Officer (CPO), who acts as the direct link between the police and the community. 4. The CPO's broad role demands continuous, sustained contact with the law-abiding people in the community, so that together they can explore creative new solutions to local concerns involving crime, fear of crime; disorder and decay, with private citizens serving as unpaid volunteers. 5. Community policing implies a new contract between the police and the citizens it serves, one that offers the hope of overcoming widespread apathy, at the same time it restrains any impulse to vigilantism. 6. Community policing adds a vital pro-active element to the reactive role of police, resulting in full-spectrum police services. 7. Community policing stresses exploring new ways to enhance and protect the lives of those who are most vulnerable- juveniles, elderly, minorities, the poor, the disabled, the homeless. 8. Community policing promotes the judicious use of technology, but also rests on the belief that nothing surpasses what dedicated human beings, talking and working together, can achieve. 9. Community policing must be a fully integrated approach that involves everyone in the department, with the CPO's as specialists in bridging the gaps between Seven (7) Traditional criteria of a profession are, - correct answer 1. A specific body of knowledge. 2. Extensive preparation through professional education, training. 3. A code of ethics. 4. Licensing, regulations by boards and councils. 5. Commitment and obligation to clientele. 6. Relative professional autonomy. 7. Public acknowledgement of status. Federalism is defined as, - correct answer • A dual system of government. Due Process of law is defined as - correct answer • The process of assuring fundamental fairness in the application of criminal justice. Probable Cause is defined as - correct answer • The fact and circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that a condition exists that justifies the action to be taken. Proof beyond a Reasonable doubt is defined as, - correct answer • The accused's guilt must be established to the point that the facts proven must, by virtue of probative force, establish guilt. Preponderance of Evidence is defined as, - correct answer • Where there is more likelihood of an event than there is doubt. Factual Guilt plus Legal Guilt is described as, - correct answer • The accused did in fact commit the crime or act in question, or there is substantial evidence of proof beyond a reasonable doubt the accused did so. The three (3) components of legal guilt are, - correct answer 1. Was the accused properly treated in being brought to justice? 2. Was he/she given his/her procedural rights? 3. Was due process adhered to? How does the Crime Control Perspective contrast with the Due Process perspective? - correct answer • Crime Control- The focus is on factual guilt and speedy process of the accused tends view the offender as guilty until proven innocent. Nicknamed "assembly line justice". • Due Process- The accused is afforded the proper constitutional and civil rights with emphasis places on following proper procedures. Nicknamed "obstacle course justice" because of the number of technicalities built into the system. - Civil Rights are defined as, - correct answer • The rights and privileges afforded all persons in society by the legislative acts of Congress, State, and Local Ordinances. Section 42 USC 1983 is, - correct answer • Every person who, under color of any statute, ordinance, regulation, custom, or usage, of any State or Territory or the District of Columbia, subjects, or causes to be subjected, any citizen of the United States or other person within the jurisdiction there of to the deprivation of any rights, privileges, or immunities secured by the Constitution and laws, shall be liable to the party injured in an action at law, suit in equity, or other proper proceeding for redress. The Criminal Justice System is, - correct answer • The formal system established by the United States for maintaining social control and handling criminal conduct. The four (4) components of the Criminal Justice System are, - correct answer 1. Law Enforcement. 2. Prosecution and Defense. 3. Judiciary. 4. Corrections. Courts of Ohio are, - correct answer • Supreme Court of Ohio. • Court of Appeals. • Common Pleas Court. • County Court. • Municipal Court. • Mayor Court. • Court of Claims. - The five (5) matters over which the Ohio Supreme Court has jurisdiction in are, - correct answer 1. Quo Warranto. 2. Madamus. 3. Habeas Corpus. 4. Prohibition. 5. Precedents. Offenses are divided into two (2) classes, - correct answer 1. Felony. 2. Misdemeanor. A Felony is anything defined by law as a Felony. - correct answer A Felony is anything defined by law as a Felony. A Misdemeanor is anything defined by law as a Misdemeanor. - correct answer A Misdemeanor is anything defined by law as a Misdemeanor. The two (2) Purposes of Felony sentencing are, - correct answer 1. Protect the public from future crime by offender and others. 2. Punish the offender. The four (4) needs a court is required to consider when imposing a Felony sentence are, - correct answer 1. The need for incapacitating the offender. 2. The need for deterring the offender and others from future crime. 3. Rehabilitating the offender. 4. Make restitution to the victim of the offense, the public, or both. The three (3) requirements which must be satisfied by a Felony sentence imposed by the court are, - correct answer 1. Reasonably calculated to achieve the consideration of the Court. 2. Must be commensurate with and not demeaning to the seriousness of the offenders conduct and its impact on the victim. 3. Must be consistent with sentences imposed for similar crimes committed by other offenders with similar circumstances. - The eleven (11) sequential steps necessary to process an adult Felon through the Criminal Justice System, - correct answer 1. Investigation. 2. Arrest. 3. Booking. 4. Initial Appearance. 5. Pre-luminary Hearing. 6. Grand Jury. 7. Arraignment. 8. Pre-trial Motions and Hearings. 9. Trial. 10. Sentences. 11. Appeals. - The seven (7) sequential steps for an adult misdemeanor, - correct answer 1. Investigation. 2. Arrest/Summons/Citation. 3. Initial Appearance. 4. Arraignment. 5. Trial. 6. Sentencing. 7. Appeals The nine (9) stages of the Juvenile Justice process, - correct answer 1. Investigation. 2. Taking Into custody. 3. Intake/ Detention Hearing. 4. Formal Complaint. 5. Pre-adjudication Hearing. 6. Pre-luminary Conferences. 7. Adjudication Hearing. 8. Disposition. 9. Appeal. Ethics are defined as, - correct answer • The moral actions, conduct, motives and character of an individual. Four (4) factors which most likely contribute to unethical behavior, - correct answer 1. Anger. 2. Lust (desire). 3. Greed. 4. Peer Pressure. The nine (9) ethical responsibilities of a Peace Officer, - correct answer 1. To treat everyone professionally. 2. A responsibility to yourself to maintain your self-respect. 3. To your own profession. 4. To your family. 5. To your community. 6. To the citizens to never allow cynicism to cloud your view of the people you serve. 7. To never use excessive force when controlling combative individuals. 8. To never accept gratuities. 9. To never commit perjury. Bribery is defined as, - correct answer • The offering, giving, receiving or solicitation of something of value for the purpose of influencing the actions of an official in the discharge of his or her public or legal duties. Malfeasances may be defined as, - correct answer • A commission of some act which is positively unlawful. The purpose of the Code of Ethics is, - correct answer • To identify expected behavior. Profiling/ Bias is unequal treatment by a law enforcement officer of any person by stopping, questioning, searching, detaining, or arresting on the basis of a person's ethnic or racial characteristics, gender, religion, or sexual orientation. - correct answer Profiling/ Bias is unequal treatment by a law enforcement officer of any person by stopping, questioning, searching, detaining, or arresting on the basis of a person's ethnic or racial characteristics, gender, religion, or sexual orientation. The term Community Policing is defined as. - correct answer • A practical, effective way of policing that helps law enforcement and community partners' work together to identify crime and its related problems, and then develop ways to resolve and prevent crime and disorder from occurring. The ten (10) principles of Community Policing, - correct answer 1. Philosophy. 2. Commitment. 3. Personalized. 4. Proactive. 5. Trust. 6. Change. 7. Futuristic. 8. Enforcement. 9. Special Needs. 10. Grass Roots. Three (3) essential elements of Community Policing, - correct answer 1. Partnership 2. Empowerment 3. Problem Solving The four (4) steps in problem solving - correct answer 1. Scanning. 2. Analysis. 3. Response. 4. Assessment. Two (2) examples of Community Policing initiatives that reduce and prevent crime, - correct answer 1. Neighborhood Watch 2. Citizens Police Academy the five (5) uses for field notes, - correct answer 1. Preservation of knowledge in written form. 2. Foundation for the formal written report. 3. Aids in further investigation. 4. Evidence in court. 5. Documentation of the officer's efforts. The eight (8) types of information the be in field notes, - correct answer 1. Complete info on victims, witnesses, and suspects involved. 2. Dated and time of offense or incident being reported. 3. Location of occurrence. 4. Type of place where offence or incident took place. 5. Details of offense or incident being reported. 6. Other important information. 7. Corresponding report number. The eight (8) guidelines followed when taking a field note, - correct answer 1. Head notebook page with day and time of shift. 2. Do not place information from one incident on the same page with information from another. 3. Write or print neatly so that you can read and understand your note later. 4. Record all information in ink. 5. Let victims and witnesses talk through the event before you start recording notes. 6. Ask clarifying follow up questions. 7. Be as complete as possible. 8. Do not record personal information in your notebook. The six (6) essential characteristics of a report - correct answer 1. Who. 2. What. 3. When. 4. How. 5. Where. 6. Why. The four (4) requirements of a well written report, - correct answer 1. Complete. 2. Concise. 3. Accurate. 4. Correct. The four (4) culpable mental states - correct answer 1. Purposely. 2. Knowingly. 3. Recklessly. 4. Negligently. Jurisdiction is defined as, - correct answer • The areas of authority: geographic area in which the court has power of the types of cases it hears. Venue is defined as, - correct answer • The particular county or geographical area in which a court with jurisdiction may hear and determine a case. Burden of proof is defined as, - correct answer • The duty of disputing facts during trial. Statutory Law is, - correct answer • The body of the law created by acts of legislature in contrast to law generated by judicial opinions and administrative bodies. - Procedural Law is defined as, - correct answer • The prescribed methods of enforcing rights or obtaining redress for their invasion. Substantive Law is, - correct answer • The part of law that creates, defines, and regulates rights. Case Law is defined as, - correct answer • The aggregate of reported cases as forming a body of jurisprudence or the law of a particular subject as evidence or formed by the adjudged cases, in distinction to statutes and other sources of law. Force is defined as, - correct answer • Any violence, compulsion, or constraint physically exerted by any means on or against a person or thing. Deadly Force is defined as, - correct answer • Any force that carries substantial risk that it will proximately result in the death of any person. Physical Harm to Persons is defined as - correct answer • Any injury, illness, or physiological impairment regardless of gravity or duration. Physical Harm to Property is defined as, - correct answer • Any tangible or intangible damage to property that, in any degree, results in the loss to its value or interferers with its use or enjoyment. Serious Physical Harm to a Person is defined as, - correct answer • Any mental illness or condition of such gravity as would normally require hospitalization or prolonged psychiatric care. • Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of death. • Any physical harm that involves some permanent incapacity, whether partial or total or that involves some temporary, substantial incapacity. • Any physical harm that involves some permanent disfigurement or involves some temporary, serious disfigurement. • Any physical harm involving acute pain of such duration as to result in substantial suffering or that involves any degree of prolonged pain or intractable pain. Serious Physical Harm to Property is defined as, - correct answer • The substantial loss to the value of the property or requires a substantial amount of time, effort, or money to repair or replace. • Temporarily prevent the use or enjoyment of the property or substantially interferes with its use or enjoyment for an extended period of time. Sexual Conduct is defined as, - correct answer • Vaginal intercourse between a male and female; anal intercourse, fellatio, and cunnilingus between persons regardless of sex and without privilege to do so, the insertion, however slight of any part of the body or any instrument, apparatus, or other object into the vaginal or anal opening of another. Sexual Contact is defined as, - correct answer • For the purpose of sexual arousing or gratifying either person any touching of erogenous zones of another including without limitation: thigh, genitals, buttock, pubic region, and if the person is a female the breast. - Sexual Activity is defined as, - correct answer • Sexual conduct, sexual contact, or both. Spouse is defined as, - correct answer • A person married to the offender at the time of an alleged offense. Serious Physical harm to Property is defined as, - correct answer • Harm to property that result in loss to the value of the property of $1,000 or more. An Overt Act is defined as, - correct answer • An open act, done outwardly, without attempts to conceal and performed pursuant to and manifesting a specific intent or design. The 4th Amendment to the United States Constitution requires probable cause for the arrest of any person. - correct answer The 4th Amendment to the United States Constitution requires probable cause for the arrest of any person. The four (4) elements necessary to constitute an arrest are, - correct answer 1. Intent to arrest. 2. Under real or assumed legal authority. 3. Accompanied by an actual or constructive seizure or detention of the person. 4. Which is understood by the person arrested. The seven (7) requirements for a valid arrest warrant are, - correct answer 1. A warrant must be supported by probable cause. 2. Affidavit must be supported by oath or affirmation. 3. Person seized must be particularly described. 4. Warrant must state the nature of the offence. 5. Warrant must designate the officer or class of officer who are directed to comply with the order of the court. 6. Must be issued in the name of the State or United States. 7. Must be signed by a neutral detached judicial officer. Probable Cause exists when, - correct answer • The facts and circumstances within the officer's knowledge and of which he/she has reasonable trustworthy information sufficient to warrant a person to believe that an offence has been, or is being committed by the person to be arrested. The issuing authority determines if probable causes exists by, - correct answer • Looking at the "totality of the circumstances" in determining if probable cause exists to issue the arrest warrant. Probable Cause becomes stale when, - correct answer • Information that gave rise to probable may become "stale" when, after a warrant is issued but before it is executed; officers obtain information which contradicts the earlier information that gave rise to the probable cause. The usual method of identifying the person to be arrested on the arrest warrant is, - correct answer • Insert his/her name in the warrant. The four (4) requirements for the execution of a valid search warrant are, - correct answer 1. The executing officer must be specifically named or fall within the class designated on the search warrant. 2. Warrant must be executed within the jurisdictional limits. 3. The arresting officer must make known his/her purpose. 4. The officer usually must show the arrest warrant or advise the arrestee that a warrant has been issued. - The circumstances under which an arrest warrant may be executed in the home of a third party are, - correct answer 1. There is also a warrant to search the premise for the person to be arrested. 2. Or, the officer has consent. 3. Or, there are exigent circumstances The seven (7) sources of information on which an officer may rely in establishing probable cause to make a warrantless arrest are, - correct answer 1. Personal observation. 2. Informants tips. 3. Reports from another officer or agency. 4. Leads furnished by the victims or witness to the crime. 5. Physical evidence found at the scene. 6. Past criminal record of the suspect. 7. Non-custodial statements made by a suspect. - When can an officer make a warrantless, nonconsensual entry into a private dwelling in order to arrest the resident? - correct answer • The court determined that exigent circumstances must exist which demand an immediate response before an officer would be justified in conducting a warrantless, non consensual entry into a private dwelling in order to arrest the resident. The standard which governs whether a summons may be issued in lieu of an arrest warrant is, - correct answer • Whether a summons is reasonably likely to ensure the accused's presence at trial. The term "hot/fresh pursuit" is defined as, - correct answer • The pursuit of a person who is endeavoring to avoid arrest without unreasonable interruption. An officer is authorized to pursue, arrest, and detain, outside of the officer's jurisdiction until a warrant may be obtained when, - correct answer • the pursuit takes place without reasonable delay after the offense is committed; and the pursuit is initiated within the jurisdiction where the officer is appointed, employed, or elected' and the offense is a felony, a misdemeanor of the first or second degree, or substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or an offense for which points may be assessed. Using the Terry rational the circumstances an officer my detain a person are, - correct answer • An officer may detain an individual based upon the officer's reasonable, articulable suspicion that crime was being planned or was in the process of being executed. The Amendment to the United States Constitution, which is the originating source for all laws pertaining to search and seizures of persons is, - correct answer • The 4th Amendment. The two (2) requirements an officer must show to establish probable causes to search are, - correct answer 1. The items involved are associated with criminal activity as either evidence of criminal activity or contraband. 2. It is more likely than not the items will be found in the place the officer wishes to search. The two (2) factors an officer could consider in establishing probable cause to search are - correct answer 1. Totality of the circumstances. 2. Defendants conduct. The Exclusionary Rule states that, - correct answer • Evidence improperly obtained by the police will be excluded from the criminal trial. An officer may briefly detain a person to determine if a person was involved in criminal activity if, - correct answer • The officer can establish reasonable suspicion to believe that criminal activity is afoot. - A person is considered to be "seized" when, - correct answer • In view of all circumstances surrounding the incident, a reasonable person would believe that he was not free to leave. The two (2) requirements, which must be established, before a Terry pat down or frisk is permitted are, - correct answer 1. Officers are required to articulate a reasonable belief that the suspect is armed. 2. Or, poses a threat to them. The area within an officer may search incident to a lawful arrest of the person is, - correct answer • The area within the person's immediate control at the arrest location. The three (3) criteria needed to establish the "plain view" exception to the search warrant requirement are, - correct answer 1. The officer must be legally on the premises from where the observation is made. 2. The officer must not violate the 4th Amendment to make the observation. 3. The incriminating nature of the item must be immediately made. The key to determining whether consent to search is in violation of the 4th Amendment is, - correct answer • Whether or not the consent to search was given voluntarily A third party's consent to search would be binding on the property owner when - correct answer • The third party has joint authority and control over the area the officer wishes to search. The rational for the Motor Vehicle Exception to the search warrant requirement is, - correct answer • Based on the fact that a vehicle could easily be moved from the jurisdiction in which the warrant was to be obtained. An officer may conduct a 'Protective Sweep' of a motor vehicle only if, - correct answer • The officer can articulate a reasonable suspicion that the vehicle contains some type of weapon, and the suspect or some other person reasonably has access to that weapon. - An officer may search an automobile and the containers within it, - correct answer • Whenever probable cause exists to believe contraband or evidence is contained in the motor vehicle or its containers. The five (5) factors a court will consider in determining if an "inventory" search of a motor vehicle is reasonable are, - correct answer 1. The car was lawfully impounded. 2. The inventory was conducted after the impoundment. 3. The owner was not present to make other arrangements for the safe keeping of the vehicle. 4. The inventory was prompted by valuables in plain view and was pursuant to standard police procedure. 5. The inventory was not a pretext to conceal an investigatory search. - The hurdles by which a confession must pass before it may be received into evidence in a court of law are, - correct answer • It must be voluntary and trustworthy. • It must not have been obtained due to a delay in taking the defendant before a judge or magistrate for arraignment. • It must not be obtained as a result of violations of the defendants Miranda rights. • It must not be obtained as a result of an illegal arrest or an illegal search. • It must not be obtained in violation to the defendant's right to council. The free and voluntary rule is defined as, - correct answer • A confession of a person accused of a crime is admissible in evidence against the accused only if it was freely and voluntary made without duress, fear, or compulsion in its inducement and full knowledge of nature and consequences of the confession. The test a court will apply in determining whether a confession was freely and voluntarily given is, - correct answer • The totality of the circumstances. The areas to which a court will refer in looking at the totality of the circumstances surrounding a confession are, - correct answer • Use of force • Threats or promises • Psychological coercion. An officer is required to read Miranda Warnings to a suspect, - correct answer • During a police custodial interrogation. The Miranda Warning, - correct answer • You have the right to remain silent, if you give up that right anything you say may be used against you in court, you have the right to be represented by an attorney and have them present with you during questioning, if you cannot afford an attorney one will be appointed for you prior to any questioning if you wish. A custodial interrogation is defined as, - correct answer • Any interrogation involving a law enforcement officer's questioning that is reasonably likely to elicit incriminating responses and in which a reasonable person in the subject's position would consider themselves in custody. The five (5) factors to be considered in determining whether an individual is "in custody", - correct answer 1. Environment. 2. Number of officers present. 3. Attitude of officers toward the person being questioned 4. Stage of the investigation. 5. Whether the interviewee was free to leave. The standards against which a wavier will be judged when an accused waives his/her Miranda rights is, - correct answer • That warnings and wavier have been given and that the statements were made knowingly, voluntary, and intelligently. The concepts of the "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine are defined as, - correct answer • If a confession is derived immediately from an unlawful arrest or unlawful search, the confession is "tainted" and neither it nor its fruits may be used against the defendant whose 4th Amendment rights were violated. - The "public safety" exception is defined as, - correct answer • Statements elicited from a defendant as well as evidence from such statements may be used as evidence even if the officer did not recite the Miranda warnings before asking questions if the officers safety or the safety of others was in jeopardy. A Tort is defined as, - correct answer • A private or civil wrong, other than a breach of contract. The four (4) major categories of police related lawsuits are - correct answer 1. Unlawful search and seizure. 2. False arrest. 3. Traffic accidents. 4. Excessive force claims. The term Emergency call is defined as, - correct answer • A call to duty, including, but not limited to, communications from citizens, police dispatchers, and personal observations by peace officers of inherently dangerous situations that demand an immediate response on the part of a peace officer. - The standard under which an officer who is responding to an emergency call is governed is called, - correct answer • Sovereign Immunity. The three (3) requirements in which a failure to train case may be the basis for liability are, - correct answer 1. Training is inadequate. 2. The city is deliberately indifferent to rights of the person with whom the officers have contact. 3. The lack of training was proximate cause of the plaintiff's injuries. The principle by which a use of force case will be judge is, - correct answer • The 4th Amendment. - The four (4) main factors considered when determining what level of force is reasonably justified are, - correct answer 1. Severity of the crime. 2. Immediate threats to officers and others. 3. Whether suspect is actively resisting. 4. Whether the suspect was evading arrest by flight. The ruling from Plakas v. Drinski (1994) was, - correct answer • Ruled that there is no requirement for officers to use all feasible alternatives to avoid a situation where deadly force can justifiably be used. The necessary steps for preparing for testifying in court are, - correct answer • Insure all evidence required for the case is accounted for and safely secured. • Whenever possible call or meet with the prosecutor to determine if they require any assistance, additional info, ect,. • As far as possible maintain contact with the victims and/or witnesses. • Unless ordered by the court or requested by the prosecutor, there is no requirement to speak with the defense • Review notes and/or reports pertinent to the case. The six (6) general rules for effective courtroom testimony are - correct answer 1. Professional appearance. 2. Wear appropriate clothing. 3. Speak loud and clear with a confidence. 4. Give complete, concise, clear answers. 5. Present a positive professional attitude. 6. Be aware of special concerns relating to the case. Defense attorney tactics and counter tactics, - correct answer • Rapid-fire questioning to confuse and force inconsistent answers, slow the pace before you answer to prevent attorney from building momentum, ask to have the question repeated if unsure how or what to answer, remain calm. • Repeated questioning to obtain conflicting responses, know the facts of the case and material upon which you will be testifying, tell the truth if you don't understand the question ask for clarification, if you don't know the answer don't guess, sometimes I don't know is the best answer. • Verbal badgering and starting to anger the officer so the officer loses composure, ignore the stare look at the person who is asking the question then answer the question to the jury, remain calm. • Suggestive questions to confuse the officer, think about the question and answers before responding, don't allow the attorney to get information to before the jury which incorrect or based upon assumptions. • Demanding a "yes" or "no" question to a question which requires an explanation, there is no direct defense for a demand that officer answer the question asked with a "yes" or "no". • Asking two questions but only wanting one answer, ask the attorney to repeat the question, ask which question to answer first. • Friendly counsel to place the officer in a false level of comfort, stay alert and listen, know the purpose of the friendly demeanor may be to lull the officer into a false sense of security so the officer becomes sloppy. • Mispronouncing the officer's name or calling the officer by a different rank to divert the officer's attention, correct the attorney one time, and ignore the error concentrate on the question and your answer. • Changing the officers testimony to confuse the officer or get a different information before the jury, listen carefully to the questions asked by the attorney, i When a witness who is not testifying as an expert, that witness may testify as to their opinion or inferences drawn as long as, - correct answer • They are rationally based on the witness's perceptions and, • Helpful for a clear understanding of the testimony or the determination of a fact in issue. Hearsay is defined as, - correct answer • A statement, other than one made by the declarent while testifying at the trial or hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted. The three (3) ego threats that affect communication are, - correct answer 1. Repression. 2. Fear of disapproval. 3. Fear of loss of status. The 17 guidelines for being an effective listener are, - correct answer 1. Want to listen. 2. Act like a good listener. 3. Listen to understand. 4. React to messages. 5. Stop talking. 6. Empathize. 7. Ask questions. 8. Concentrate. 9. Look at the person. 10. Smile. 11. Listen for main points. 12. Share the responsibility for seeing the message is understood. 13. React to ideas, not the person communicating. 14. Don't argue mentally. 15. Since the mind works much faster than a person can talk, use the different rate to track the person's main ideas. 16. Don't antagonize the speaker. 17. Avoid judgments. The four (4) principles for working with people are, - correct answer 1. Maintain positive attitude. 2. Be on stage when on the job. 3. Practice the golden rule. 4. Obey the law. - The two (2) reasons for establishing effective communication with media are, - correct answer 1. Quickest way to reach the largest audience. 2. Media coverage greatly impacts public opinion of the agency. The twelve (12) guidelines for dealing with the media are, - correct answer 1. Be truthful with the media. 2. Don't say what you don't want to be broadcast. 3. Think before you speak. 4. Never avoid comment. 5. Don't be misled by "off the record". 6. Avoid using police jargon. 7. Never give personal opinion. 8. Avoid outward hostility. 9. Avoid humor. 10. Never wear dark sunglasses during TV's interview. 11. Be wary of still photographs and open mic's. 12. Be aware of the waiting game. The elements of the offense that constitute Domestic Violence in Ohio are, - correct answer • Knowingly cause or attempt to cause physical harm to a family or household member. Recklessly cause serious physical injury to family/household member. • By threat of force, knowingly causing a family/ household member to believe that the offender will cause imminent harm to family/household member The Four (4) categories of persons who fall within the meaning of family/household member are, - correct answer • Any residing or has resided with the offender- a spouse, person living as spouse, former spouse of offender. Parent, foster parent, child of offender. Parent or child of spouse, former spouse of offender or another person related by blood. Natural parent of child of whom the offender is the natural parent. - The four (4) elements which should be used to determine the primary aggressor in a domestic violence incident are, - correct answer Any history of domestic violence or other violent acts, whether the violence by person was in self-defense, each person's fear of physical harm, if any, resulting from the other person's threatened use of force against any person or from the other's history of use of force against any person, the comparative severity of any injuries suffered by persons involved in the alleged offense. Protection orders, - correct answer • Temporary Protection Order (TPO) is an order from the court that is available after a family/ household member is charged with a violent or sexually oriented offence, it removes the suspect from the shared residence and has other restrictions as well. • Criminal Protection Order (CRPO) is Issued by the court after non-family household member is charged with a violent, menacing, or sexually oriented offence. • Civil Protection Order (CPO) is obtained through domestic relations and there are no charges filed. • Stalking or Sexually Oriented Offense Protection Order (SSOOPO) protect the victim of stalking/ sexually oriented offenses from non-family members, issued through the common pleas court, available for victims in absence of criminal charges. - The active listening skills are, - correct answer • Attempt to hear and understand, most persons in crisis have a desire to be understood (active listening is critical for crisis resolution) • Use minimal encouragement, demonstrate you are listening carefully (respond with yes, ok, I see, ECT.) • Give occasional, brief, and well timed vocal replies. • Paraphrasing, repeating in own words what he thinks the said shows that the offices understands what is being said. • Active listening helps acquire accurate information. • Armed with more accurate information officers can respond and act more intelligently and identify better alternatives to resolve situations. • Demonstrates that officers are aware of and sensitive to their emotions. • Ask open ended questions, avoid why questions, instead ask who, what, how questions which allow you to assess the person's situation. The loss model to recognize a person the nature of a person in crisis is - correct answer • Loss of reality • Loss of hope • Loss of control • Loss of perspective • Person may be frightened, confused, have difficulty concentrating or communicating. • May be delusional, hallucinations. Officer should neither validate, nor deny the existence of what the person is experiencing, instead acknowledge how it makes them feel. • De-escalation goals are to try and ground the person in the "here and now". Ask and use the person's name, make eye contact, ask simple questions. Get the person to voluntarily comply with your request. • If the person is experiencing "command voices" the voice may tell them to do something, ask them what. • May be emotional, vary withdrawn, fatigued, feeling overwhelmed, suicidal talk or gestured, crying, despair, strong feelings of helplessness. • Instill hope. The purpose of the EAR model and examples of how they may be used are, - correct answer • Engage, Assess, Resolve. • Connect with and calm. • The first ten (10) seconds will set the tone. • Remove distractions at the scene. • Introduce and ask their name. • State why you are there. • Ask questions. • Model the calmness that you want the person to mirror. • Be sympathetic, if they feel they are understood they are more likely to calm down. • The threat assessment is continuous. • Be patient, ask medical history. The officer's goal should be to get to the individual to focus on the element of their story causing the ambivalence when talking to a person contemplating suicide. - correct answer The officer's goal should be to get to the individual to focus on the element of their story causing the ambivalence when talking to a person contemplating suicide. Victims may fear that their sexual assault report will not be believed or taken seriously because, - correct answer • They knew the suspect or closely related and acquainted. • Intimidated because of the suspects position, power, or social status. • Where on drugs or alcohol. • Put themselves at risk by their actions. • Have a criminal record or warrant or were engaged in illegal activity during offence. Essential things an offices needs to convey to the victims of sexual assault are, - correct answer • They are knowledgeable about sexual assault. • They believe the victim • That the victim is not to blame. - Statutory definition of an abused child, - correct answer • 2151.031 Abused child defined. • As used in this chapter, an "abused child" includes any child who: • Is the victim of "sexual activity" as defined under Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code, where such activity would constitute an offense under that chapter, except that the court need not find that any person has been convicted of the offense in order to find that the child is an abused child; • Is endangered as defined in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code, except that the court need not find that any person has been convicted under that section in order to find that the child is an abused child; • Exhibits evidence of any physical or mental injury or death, inflicted other than by accidental means, or an injury or death which is at variance with the history given of it. Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a child exhibiting evidence of corporal punishment or other physical disciplinary measure by a parent, guardian, custodian, person having custody or control, or person in loco parentis of a child is not an abused child under this division if the measure is not prohibited under section 2919.22 of the Revised Code. • Because of the acts of his parents, guardian, or custodian, suffers physical or mental injury that harms or threatens to harm the child's health or welfare. • Is subjected to out-of-home care child abuse. The three (3) general clinical signs of physical abuse are, - correct answer 1. Unexplained damage to the skin. 2. Damage to the brain. 3. Unexplained damage to the internal organs. The eight (8) behaviors that may be seen in emotionally abused children are, - correct answer 1. Conduct disorder. 2. Habit disorder. 3. Unwitting remarks about bad behavior. 4. Extreme behavior. 5. Overly adaptive behavior. 6. Attempts suicide. 7. Lags in emotional development. 8. Psycho-neurotic behavior. - The six-teen (16) characteristics that may be seen in a sexually abused child are, - correct answer 1. Reports sexual abuse. 2. Early/ exaggerated awareness of sex. 3. Injuries of mouth, anus, and/or genitals in specific ways. 4. Evidence of semen in cavities. 5. Fearful, distressed, or secretive pregnant child. 6. Behavioral problems in school. 7. Know victims of other abuse. 8. Difficulty walking or sitting. 9. Torn, stained, or bloody under clothing. 10. Itching or pain in genital areas. 11. Venereal disease. 12. Withdrawn, fantasy, or infantile behavior. 13. Poor peer relations. 14. Unwilling to change for gym or participate in physical activities. 15. Delinquency. 16. Bizarre, sophisticated, or unusual knowledge of sex. The thirteen (13) responsibilities of a Law Enforcement Agency in missing child cases are, - correct answer 1. When a law enforcement agency is informed that a minor is or may be a missing child, the agency will take the report. 2. The agency shall take prompt action to locate the missing child. 3. No law enforcement agency shall have a rule or policy prohibiting the report of a missing child. 4. No law enforcement agency in Ohio shall establish a specified waiting period from the time a child is thought to be missing before a report can be filed. 5. Immediately following the making of a missing child report, the agency shall gather readily available information about the child and enter it into the NCIC system. 6. Following the transmittal of initially available information the agency shall make reasonable efforts to acquire additional information about the missing child and add the additional information to the NCIC system. 7. Whenever an agency enters information about a missing child into the NCIC system, the agency shall notify the person who is legally responsible for that child it has done so. 8. When a missing child report is filed with a law enforcement agency, the agency shall make a reasonable attempt to notify neighboring law enforcement agencies that is has taken a missing child report, that it may be requesting assistance or cooperation in the case, and the agency shall provide relevant information to other law enforcement agencies. 9. In Ohio, law enforcement agencies shall provide assistance to and cooperate with other agencies in their investigations of missing child cases. 10. When law enforcement personnel of this state, other states or the federal government request information on a missing child case to aid in identifying or locating a missing child or for the possible identification of a deceased minor who, upon discovery, cannot be identified, the law enforcement agencies shall comply with the request. The three (3) categories of juvenile kidnapping are, - correct answer 1. Family. 2. Acquaintance 3. Stranger Actions mandated by the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990 for law enforcement agencies in cases of missing children are, - correct answer • No federal, state, or local law enforcement agency will establish or observe a waiting period before accepting a missing child case. • All agencies will enter, without delay, reports of missing children younger than 18 years of age into NCIC Missing Person File. • Agencies will update identifying information on each case in the NCIC within 60 days. • Each case will receive proper investigative action. • Investigators will maintain a close liaison with the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children (NCMEC) on appropriate cases. The four (4) categories of missing children cases are, - correct answer 1. Runaways/throwaways 2. Lost/injured/otherwise missing (LIM) 3. Family abduction 4. Non-family abduction - The first two (2) actions recommended for a first responder to a missing child complaint are, - correct answer 1. Interview the parent(s) or person making the initial report. 2. Verify that the child is missing. The unusual circumstances which indicate the need for immediate action by agency personnel in a reported case of a missing child are, - correct answer • The missing child is 13 years of age or younger. • The missing child is believed to be out of the zone of safety for his or her age and development. • The missing child is mentally incapacitated. • The missing child is drug dependent, including prescribed medication and/or illegal substances and the dependence is potentially life threatening. • The missing child has been absent from home for more than 24 hours before being reported to the police. • Based on available information it is determined that the missing child is in a life threatening situation. • Based on available information it is believed that the missing child is in the company of adults who could endanger his/her welfare. • The absence is inconsistent with his/her established patterns of behaviors and the deviation cannot be readily explained. • Other circumstances are involved in the disappearance that would cause a reasonable person to conclude that the child should be considered "at risk". - Activities which are common to all investigative personnel during the initial response to a missing child report are, - correct answer • Debriefing the first responder. • Interviewing the witnesses. • Developing assessment criteria. • Activating response protocols. - Search fundamentals for missing child investigation are, - correct answer • Keep a separate activity log for each search. • Log the names and affiliations of all searchers, officers and civilians, along with their general area of search assignment. • Thoroughly brief search team leaders on all information needed to conduct a complete operation. • Brief all searchers on the search pattern(s) to be used and the techniques used. • Instruct searchers to bring items found to the attention of the appropriate search team leader, do not touch or disturb the items found. • Control searchers so that no one works alone. • Document all search activities. • Safeguard against the use of inappropriate individuals in the search process. The Elements of a stereotypical kidnapping in a missing child case are, - correct answer • The child is gone overnight. • The child is killed. • The child is transported 50 miles or more. • The child is ransomed or... • The perpetrator indicates intent to keep the child permanently. - Descriptors of the "typical" newborn/infant abductor are, - correct answer • Female of "child bearing" age (12-50). • Often overweight. • Most likely compulsive. • Most often relies on manipulation, lying, and deception. • Usually lives in the community where the abduction takes place. • Often married or cohabiting and uses a companion's desire for a child as the motivation for the abduction. • Frequently makes initial visits to nursery and maternity units at more than one healthcare facility prior to abduction. • Asks detailed questions about procedures and the maternity floor layout. • Frequently uses a fire-exit stairwell for her escape. • Usually plans the abduction, but does not necessarily target a specific infant, but frequently seizes on any opportunity present. • Frequently, impersonates a nurse or other hospital personnel. • Often becomes familiar with hospital personnel and even with the victim's parents. • Demonstrates a capability to provide "good" care to the baby once the abduction occurs. Items an officer must remember when considering criminal charges in cases of family abduction, - correct answer • Sufficient documentation. • Identification. • Clear establishment of the intent. • Removal from the state. • Mitigating factors. • Accomplices. "AMBER" stands for, - correct answer America's Missing Broadcast Emergency Response. The criteria for activating a statewide AMBER Alert in Ohio are, - correct answer • The local investigating law enforcement agency confirms that an abduction has occurred. • The child is under 18 years of age. • The child is in immediate danger of serious bodily harm or death. • There exists sufficient descriptive information concerning the abduction to believe that activation of the alert will help locate the child. • The investigating agency has information indicating the abductor intends or has actually moved the child out of the local area. • If the child is a runaway or victim of a family abduction, and information exists to believe the child the child is in immediate danger of serious physical harm or death. Some questions to ask a returned runaway child are, - correct answer • Why did you leave? • Where did you go? • With whom did you stay? • Did anyone encourage you to leave? • How did you survive? • Have you runaway before? • Why did you return? • Is it safe for you to return home? • Will you run away again? • Is there anything I can do for you now? - The concept which is the foundation of the juvenile justice system is, - correct answer • Parens Patriae (In place of Parents) the four (4) requirements the United States Supreme Court established for juvenile courts in Kent v. United States (1966) are, - correct answer 1. Hold a hearing before waiving jurisdiction of child's case. 2. Assure the rights of the child to be represented by counsel. 3. Permit counsel access to social records and probation reports on the child. 4. Juvenile court judge must state reason(s) for transfer, in writing. The five (5) overriding principles of the juvenile justice system are, - correct answer 1. Providing for care, protection, and mental/physical development. 2. Protecting the public interest and safety. 3. Holding offenders accountable. 4. Restoring victims. 5. Rehabilitating offenders. The four (4) violations of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Protection Act (JJDPA) are, - correct answer 1. Held securely. 2. Is held over 6 hours. 3. Sentenced to secure adult jail/prison. 4. Within sight and sound of adult offenders. The nine (9) factors considered in transfer to adult court are, - correct answer 1. Suffered physical, psychological, or economic harm. 2. Victim's psychological or physical harm exacerbated by physical/mental vulnerability or age. 3. Relationship to victim facilitated act. 4. Committed act for hire or was part of a gang. 5. Used, indicated, or brandished a firearm. 6. Waiting adjudication. 7. Doesn't show progress in rehabilitation. 8. Mature enough to transfer. 9. Not sufficient time for rehabilitation in juvenile justice system. - The three (3) types of injuries that a victim may suffer are, - correct answer 1. Physical injuries. 2. Financial injuries. 3. Emotional injuries and reactions. The common needs most victims have after a crime has been committed are, - correct answer • Safety • Healing • Justice • Restitution The sources for victim's rights in Ohio are, - correct answer • Article 1, section 10A of the Ohio Constitution. • Chapter 2930 of the Ohio Revised Code. The three (3) things law enforcement agencies are required to provide, in writing, to the victim of a crime are, - correct answer 1. Explain rights under 2930 of the ORC. 2. Information about any services available. 3. Info on Ohio Victim's Advocate. The three (3) factors necessary for the commission of a crime are, - correct answer 1. Desire. 2. Victim. 3. Opportunity. Crime prevention is defined as, - correct answer • A pattern of attitudes and behaviors directed both at reducing the threat of crime and enhancing the sense of safety and security. • To positively influence the quality of life in our society. • To help develop environments where crime cannot flourish. The ten (10) guidelines to enhance personal safety are, - correct answer 1. Know your surroundings, 360 degrees. 2. Lock your door and windows. 3. Do not leave your valuables in vehicles, if you must use the trunk. 4. Know your neighbors and be sure they know you. 5. Do not talk to strangers. 6. Walk with confidence and be ready. 7. Do not flash cash. 8. Take a friend. 9. Walk in well lit areas. 10. Practice random irregularity. The four (4) "D's" of crime prevention are, - correct answer 1. Deny. 2. Delay. 3. Detect. 4. Deter. The three (3) goals of a security survey are, - correct answer 1. Identify security risks. 2. Define the precautionary measures and protection needed. 3. Make recommendations to help minimize criminal opportunity. The term "community diversity" is defined as, - correct answer • Understanding different life practices relating to race, religion, gender, physical ability/disability, sexual orientation, and the validity and integrity of those behaviors. The benefits of understanding different cultures are, - correct answer • A proactive approach enhances and embraces positive police-community relations. • Reduction in frequency of law suits. • Greater personal and organizational benefits. • Ending old ideas. • Better for police image and perception. - the seven (7) elements which make people different are, - correct answer 1. Race. 2. Values. 3. Culture- knowledge, belief and behaviors transmitted by generation. 4. Religion. 5. Heritage. 6. Sexual orientation. 7. Ethnicity- a group of people who share characteristics such as rituals, languages, nationality, religion. The differences between Low and High context cultures are, - correct answer • Low context- words send most of the message, value laden, language has less emotion, words are extremely important and carry explicit meaning, communication process is less important, eye contact more direct, language primarily who, what, where, when, why, and how. • High context- words send part of the message, less direct eye contact, emotion, posturing and gesturing may be part of communication, message that is spoke has to be understood in whole context of the culture, process of communication is just as important as the words used and may bury the implicit meaning of the words used or intended meaning. The three (3) factors which influence organizational culture are, - correct answer 1. Personalities. 2. Values. 3. Experiences. The three (3) types of racism are, - correct answer 1. Individual- sense of racial superiority. 2. Institutional- organization failing to provide service because of race. 3. Cultural- relies on cultural difference rather than biological. The term "prejudice" is defined as, - correct answer • An unreasonable feeling, opinion, or attitude, especially of a hostile nature regarding a race, religion, or national group. Some factors that indicate racism exists in the work place are, - correct answer • Biased personal assignments. • Perceptions of lowers standards for minorities. • Hierarchy lacking parity of minorities. • Racial inequality in specialized units. • Polarization of officers. • Racial slurs, gestures, or graffiti. • Stereotyping. • Unfair promotional practices. • Intimidation. • Patterns of unpleasant job assignment. • Forced to rely on outside barging units. Profiling is defined as, - correct answer • Unequal treatment by law enforcement officers of any person by stopping, questions, searching, detaining, or arresting on the basis of the persons ethnic/racial characteristics, gender, religion, or sexual orientation. Some attitudes held by homophobic people are, - correct answer • Feels their masculinity/femininity is challenged. • Think gay officers will walk around hand in hand. • Think they cannot rely on gay officers for backup. • Fear, dislike, and hate those who have same sex relations. • Uncomfortable around gays. • Fear of disease. • Homosexuality is a matter of free choice. • Reprisal against gays is OK. The differences between criminal profiling and racial/bias profiling are, - correct answer • Criminal is legal based on observed behaviors and characteristics. • Racial/bias is illegal; factors of race/ethnicity and bias towards their race are initiating factors in the stop. Some practices that can be used to improve law enforcement relations multicultural communities are, - correct answer • Positive contact must be made with group members, not only when something negative has happened. • Allow the public to see you in a non-enforcement role. • Make an effort in your mind to treat all segments of society fairly while en-route to calls. • Remember that all groups have some good, average, and bad. • Be personable and friendly with minority group members, many do not expect it. • Do not appear unfriendly or avoid discussing racial/minority issues with officers/citizens. • Take responsibility for educating citizens and the public about the role of the officer and about Standard Operating Procedures in law enforcement, citizens don't understand your culture. • Don't be afraid to be an agent of change in your organization and community improving relations. • Participate in community awareness and outreach groups. • Use conflict resolution methods daily. • Bring community leaders/groups into recruitment process. The four (4) generations in the work place are, - correct answer 1. Veterans- before 1943. 2. Baby boomers- 1944 to 1964 3. X-ers- 1965 to 1980 4. Millennials- 1981 to 2000s The term "hate crime" is defined as, - correct answer • Any unlawful act designed to frighten or harm an individual because of his/her race, religion, or national origin. Some of the effects of a hate crime on victims and society are, - correct answer • Emotional and psychological impact, increase tensions, reprisals, victimization is traumatic. Techniques an officer can use to help determine if the perpetrator intentionally selected the victim because of a protected characteristics are, - correct answer • Presence of visible symbols of hatred and bias. • What the perpetrator said or did. • Absence of any other motive. The actions an officer should take during the "golden hour" are, - correct answer • Rescue any victims and/or administer emergency care. • Prevent further contamination if chemical weapons are involved. • Prevent further casualties. • Protect the scene/evidence. • Identify victims, witnesses, suspects. Some group ideologies are, - correct answer • Prime motivation is money. • Explicitly raciest. • Consider people of color to be sub-human. • Homophobia has recently been added to their agenda. • Often blame the government, communism, and/or racial "conspiracies" for most problems. The time frame within which a law enforcement agency must a missing person, age 21 or older, into NCIC if foul play is suspected is, - correct answer • Seven (7) days. The time frame by which a coroner must submit a DNA sample to BCI&I from an unidentified deceased person is, - correct answer • Within thirty (30) days. The time frame by which BCI&I must forward fingerprints, photographs, and DNA specimens submitted by a coroner to NCIC and National DNA Index System is, - correct answer • Within ten (10) days of BCI&I completing DNA analysis "Emergency Operation" is defined as - correct answer Any situation or circumstance which requires substantial deviation from normally assigned duties of personnel and equipment. The term "Riot" is defined as - correct answer An unlawful assembly which has developed to the stage of violence. The five (5) sources from which civil disorder most often arise are, - correct answer 1. Political grievances. 2. Urban economic conflicts. 3. Community unrest. 4. Terrorist acts. 5. Foreign influences. The three (3) objectives of a law enforcement agency during a civil disorder are, - correct answer 1. Protect life and property. 2. Restore order. 3. Arrest law violators. the six (6) priorities to be considered when taking action during an incident of civil disorder are, - correct answer 1. Avoiding loss of life. 2. Controlling violence. 3. Rescuing victims. 4. Escorting and protecting fire personnel. 5. Arresting law violators. 6. Containing crowds. The role of law enforcement officers during a peaceful demonstration is, - correct answer • Protect the rights of peaceful demonstrators. • Protect the rights of the public. - The three (3) basic concepts of perimeter control are, - correct answer 1. Linear. 2. Cordoning. 3. Sectoring. The considerations for selecting a field jail site are, - correct answer • Fencing. • Shelter. • Food. • Emergency medical aid. The five (5) uses for a mobile field force are, - correct answer 1. Control of unruly crowds, either hostile or passive. 2. To seal off the problem areas regardless of size. 3. To rescue citizens or officers from the crowd. 4. To clear an area of hostile individuals by use of proactive tactics. 5. To apprehend multiple offenders, if required. The four types of chemical agents used by law enforcement agencies are, - correct answer 1. OC- Cleoresin capsicum, color code orange. 2. CS- Lcrymator, color code blue. 3. HC- Hexachlorethane, color code yellow. 4. CN- Chloroacetopheone, color code red. The five (5) steps for administering first aid to an individual who has been exposed to the chemical agents "CN" or "CS" are, - correct answer 1. Remove from contaminated area. 2. Encourage to remain calm. 3. Advise not to rub eyes. 4. Flush effected area with clean fresh water. 5. Seek professional medical attention if the condition is questionable. The two (2) steps for administering first aid to an individual who has been exposed to the chemical agent "HC" are, - correct answer 1. Remove from contaminated area. 2. Expose to fresh air. The three (3) steps for administering first aid to an individual who has been exposed to the chemical agent "OC" are, - correct answer 1. Expose to fresh air. 2. Flush exposed skin with fresh water. 3. Do not use soap, oily ointments or soap as they tend to hold OC particles on the skin, seek professional medical attention if condition is questionable. The reason for law enforcement driver training is, - correct answer • Reduce collisions. • Reduce personal injury. • Reduce the liability. • Increase the level of attention to the driving task. • Increase the desire to continue to improve as a driv