MLT License Exam Questions And Answers, Latest Updated 2024/2025 (Graded A+)

MLT License Exam Questions And Answers, Latest Updated 2024/2025 (Graded A+) The name of the rapid test seen in the image, often used to differentiate S. pneumoniae from viridans streptococci, in which a drop of 10% deoxycholate was placed on an area of growth, is: A) Bile solubility test B) Bile esculin hydrolysis C) Optochin susceptibility test D) Bacitracin susceptibility test - ANSWER A) Bile solubility test Which of the following describes the Westgard multi-rule R4S? A) Four consecutive control data points are within ±1s B) Four consecutive control data points are outside ± 2s C) One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD D) Two consecutive data points fall outside the mean four times - ANSWER C) One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD Feedback Westgard R4S rule: this rule applies when the difference between the highest and lowest result of a run exceeds 4 standard deviations (SD). For example, on day one the control is at +2SD. On day two, the same control is at -2SD. This rule detects random errors. The run is rejected. Which tests will be abnormal in a patient with Fibrin Stabilizing factor deficiency? A) aPTT B) 5 M urea clot solubility test C) Factor XIII assay D) Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay - ANSWER D) Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay The following BEST describes serum hCG levels during pregnancy: MLT License Exam Questions And Answers, Latest Updated 2024/2025 )100% Correct Answers) A) Rise in levels throughout pregnancy B) Highest levels found at end of pregnancy C) Rapid rise in levels during first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout remainder of pregnancy D) Slow rise in levels during first trimester; rapid rise during second trimester; slow decline during the third trimester - ANSWER C) Rapid rise in levels during first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout remainder of pregnancy Feedback hCG levels rise rapidly during the first trimester, then the levels start to decline around week 16. The hCG levels slowly decrease and can level off during the remainder of the pregnancy. Which of the following is an example of a macroscopic urinalysis abnormality? A) Glitter cells B) Positive protein C) Waxy casts D) Red blood cell casts - ANSWER B) Positive protein Feedback The macroscopic abnormalities are detected by the physical and chemical portions of the urinalysis. Obtaining a positive protein during the chemical portion of a urinalysis would be an example of a macroscopic abnormality. The presence of glitter cells, waxy casts, and red blood cell casts could only be determined by the microscopic examination of the urine sample. Which bacterial species is most likely represented by the spreading, wrinkled, non-hemolytic colony appearance as illustrated in the photograph? A) Burkholderia pseudomallei B) Pseudomonas aerginosa C) Bacillus cereus D) Listeria monocytogenes - ANSWER A) Burkholderia pseudomallei Which hemoglobin will be increased in delta-beta thalassemia? A) Hb A B) Hb A2 C) Hb F D) Hb H - ANSWER C) Hb F Feedback HbF is increased in delta-beta thalassemia. It is increased to 100% in delta-beta thalassemia major. In beta thalassemia HbA, a2ß2, is decreased or absent. In delta beta thalassemia HbA2, a2d2, is decreased. HbH is beta globin tetramer seen in alpha thalassemia HbH disease. HbH is not seen in beta thalassemia. Which of the following methods for long-term diabetic monitoring is recommended for patients with sickle cell anemia? A) Fructosamine B) Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) C) Both methods are acceptable. D) Neither method is acceptable. - ANSWER A) Fructosamine Feedback In sickle cell anemia, rapid hemoglobin turnover may be present. HbA1c and other glycosylated hemoglobin assays are not valid in rapid hemoglobin turnover and hemoglobinopathy conditions. Fructosamine measurements are more sensitive than HbA1c in monitoring long term diabetes in patients with such conditions. Fructosamine (also called glycosylated albumin) is formed by the nonenzymatic attachment of glucose to amino groups of proteins other than hemoglobin. Because albumin is the most abundant serum protein whose halflife is about 20 days, the concentration of glycosylated albumin reflects the consumption of glucose over a period of 2-3 weeks. This feature makes fructosamine the test of choice for monitoring diabetic control in patients with hemolytic anemias such as sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, and autoimmune hemolysis Abnormal granulation can be seen in the cytoplasm of leukocytes in which of the following conditions? A) Pelger-Huët anomaly B) Pseudo-Pelger-Huët anomaly C) May-Hegglin anomaly D) Chediak-Higashi syndrome - ANSWER C) May-Hegglin anomaly Small, gray, alpha hemolytic colonies with indented centers were isolated on sheep blood agar from a peritoneal fluid. The following biochemicals were performed: Gram Stain: Gram positive lancet-shaped cocci in chains and pairs Catalase: Negative Optochin susceptibility: Sensitive 14 mm A) Alpha hemolytic streptococcus species B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Streptococcus agalactiae - ANSWER C) Streptococcus pyogenes A representative congenital neutrophil functional disorder is: A) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome B) Gaucher's disease C) Niemann-Pick Disease D) Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) - ANSWER A) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome What should be done FIRST if a donor unit of red blood cells is found to be incompatible at the antiglobulin phase but compatible at immediate spin with several different recipients? A) Repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using different sera B) Do a panel made up of red cells having all low-frequency antigens C) Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit D) Obtain a new specimen and repeat the minor crossmatch - ANSWER C) Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit Which symptom of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase? A) Anemia B) Increased reticulocyte count C) Jaundice D) Cardiac failure - ANSWER C) Jaundice Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL tests: A) Diagnostic of active syphilis B) Diagnostic of latent syphilis C) Diagnostic of neuro-syphilis D) Monitoring course of treatment - ANSWER D) Monitoring course of treatment Feedback While the RPR and VDRL tests are often the first screening test used to detect syphilis, a definitive diagnosis of syphilis can only be made using a specific treponemal test such as EIAs for IgG and IgM antibodies, agglutination tests such as FTA-ABS, TP-PA and MHA-TP, or a direct detection method of the organism. The RPR and VDRL detect nontreponemal antibody proteins called reagin that the body produces in response to infection with T. pallidum. Because reagin proteins are also detected in pregnancy, old age, Lupus, and other syndromes and disease states, the RPR and VDRL tests are very sensitive but not highly specific and so a confirmatory test specifically for treponemal organisms or antibodies needs to be performed. Essential components of compatibility testing include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Antibody screen on recipient's serum B) Major crossmatch or computer crossmatch C) ABO and Rh typing of recipient D) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) - ANSWER D) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) Feedback A direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is used to detect in-vivo sensitization of red blood cells with IgG or complement components. Cases in which this test is used include hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, hemolytic transfusion reaction, and autoimmune or drug induced hemolytic anemia. AABB Standards do not require a DAT for pretransfusion testing. Studies have looked into whether or not a routine DAT would benefit patient outcomes and have shown that they do not have a positive impact for the patients. All recipient have compatibility testing done that includes ABO grouping, Rh typing, and antibody screen, and a crossmatch. Which lipid does not serve as a source of fuel, but can be converted to steroid hormones? A) Fatty acids B) Cholesterol C) Triglycerides D) Phospholipids - ANSWER B) Cholesterol A 32-year-old teacher, is seeing her internist for her yearly physical. Because her great grandmother suffered from cardiac disease, she is concerned about her own risk for cardiac disease. She is not a smoker nor hypertensive, and is not overweight. She is physically active and maintains a good diet and nutrition. Her physician orders a lipid panel and hs-CRP to evaluate her cardiac disease risk. Test Patient Result Reference Range Cholesterol 189 mg/dL 200 mg/dL Triglyceride 140 mg/dL 150 mg/dL LDL- cholesterol 98 mg/dL 100 mg/dL (optimal) HDL-cholesterol 60 mg/dL 59 mg/dL (optimal)