MLT License Exam Questions And Answers, Latest Updated 2024/2025 (100% Verified Answers)

MLT License Exam Questions And Answers, Latest Updated 2024/2025 (100% Correct Answers) Which of the following describes the Westgard multi-rule R4S? A) Four consecutive control data points are within ±1s B) Four consecutive control data points are outside ± 2s C) One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD D) Two consecutive data points fall outside the mean four times - ANSWER C) One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD Feedback Westgard R4S rule: this rule applies when the difference between the highest and lowest result of a run exceeds 4 standard deviations (SD). For example, on day one the control is at +2SD. On day two, the same control is at -2SD. This rule detects random errors. The run is rejected. Which tests will be abnormal in a patient with Fibrin Stabilizing factor deficiency? A) aPTT B) 5 M urea clot solubility test C) Factor XIII assay D) Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay - ANSWER D) Both 5 M urea clot solubility test and Factor XIII assay The following BEST describes serum hCG levels during pregnancy: MLT License Exam Questions And Answers, Latest Updated 2024/2025 )100% Correct Answers) A) Rise in levels throughout pregnancy B) Highest levels found at end of pregnancy C) Rapid rise in levels during first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout remainder of pregnancy D) Slow rise in levels during first trimester; rapid rise during second trimester; slow decline during the third trimester - ANSWER C) Rapid rise in levels during first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout remainder of pregnancy Feedback hCG levels rise rapidly during the first trimester, then the levels start to decline around week 16. The hCG levels slowly decrease and can level off during the remainder of the pregnancy. Which of the following is an example of a macroscopic urinalysis abnormality? A) Glitter cells B) Positive protein C) Waxy casts D) Red blood cell casts - ANSWER B) Positive protein Feedback The macroscopic abnormalities are detected by the physical and chemical portions of the urinalysis. Obtaining a positive protein during the chemical portion of a urinalysis would be an example of a macroscopic abnormality. The presence of glitter cells, waxy casts, and red blood cell casts could only be determined by the microscopic examination of the urine sample. Which bacterial species is most likely represented by the spreading, wrinkled, non-hemolytic colony appearance as illustrated in the photograph? A) Burkholderia pseudomallei B) Pseudomonas aerginosa C) Bacillus cereus D) Listeria monocytogenes - ANSWER A) Burkholderia pseudomallei Which hemoglobin will be increased in delta-beta thalassemia? A) Hb A B) Hb A2 C) Hb F D) Hb H - ANSWER C) Hb F Feedback HbF is increased in delta-beta thalassemia. It is increased to 100% in delta-beta thalassemia major. In beta thalassemia HbA, a2ß2, is decreased or absent. In delta beta thalassemia HbA2, a2d2, is decreased. HbH is beta globin tetramer seen in alpha thalassemia HbH disease. HbH is not seen in beta thalassemia. Which of the following methods for long-term diabetic monitoring is recommended for patients with sickle cell anemia? A) Fructosamine B) Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) C) Both methods are acceptable. D) Neither method is acceptable. - ANSWER A) Fructosamine Feedback In sickle cell anemia, rapid hemoglobin turnover may be present. HbA1c and other glycosylated hemoglobin assays are not valid in rapid hemoglobin turnover and hemoglobinopathy conditions. Fructosamine measurements are more sensitive than HbA1c in monitoring long term diabetes in patients with such conditions. Fructosamine (also called glycosylated albumin) is formed by the nonenzymatic attachment of glucose to amino groups of proteins other than hemoglobin. Because albumin is the most abundant serum protein whose halflife is about 20 days, the concentration of glycosylated albumin reflects the consumption of glucose over a period of 2-3 weeks. This feature makes fructosamine the test of choice for monitoring diabetic control in patients with hemolytic anemias such as sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, and autoimmune hemolysis Abnormal granulation can be seen in the cytoplasm of leukocytes in which of the following conditions? A) Pelger-Huët anomaly B) Pseudo-Pelger-Huët anomaly C) May-Hegglin anomaly D) Chediak-Higashi syndrome - ANSWER C) May-Hegglin anomaly Small, gray, alpha hemolytic colonies with indented centers were isolated on sheep blood agar from a peritoneal fluid. The following biochemicals were performed: Gram Stain: Gram positive lancet-shaped cocci in chains and pairs Catalase: Negative Optochin susceptibility: Sensitive 14 mm A) Alpha hemolytic streptococcus species B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Streptococcus agalactiae - ANSWER C) Streptococcus pyogenes A representative congenital neutrophil functional disorder is: A) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome B) Gaucher's disease C) Niemann-Pick Disease D) Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) - ANSWER A) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome What should be done FIRST if a donor unit of red blood cells is found to be incompatible at the antiglobulin phase but compatible at immediate spin with several different recipients? A) Repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using different sera B) Do a panel made up of red cells having all low-frequency antigens C) Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit D) Obtain a new specimen and repeat the minor crossmatch - ANSWER C) Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit Which symptom of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase? A) Anemia B) Increased reticulocyte count C) Jaundice D) Cardiac failure - ANSWER C) Jaundice Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL tests: A) Diagnostic of active syphilis B) Diagnostic of latent syphilis C) Diagnostic of neuro-syphilis D) Monitoring course of treatment - ANSWER D) Monitoring course of treatment Feedback While the RPR and VDRL tests are often the first screening test used to detect syphilis, a definitive diagnosis of syphilis can only be made using a specific treponemal test such as EIAs for IgG and IgM antibodies, agglutination tests such as FTA-ABS, TP-PA and MHA-TP, or a direct detection method of the organism. The RPR and VDRL detect nontreponemal antibody proteins called reagin that the body produces in response to infection with T. pallidum. Because reagin proteins are also detected in pregnancy, old age, Lupus, and other syndromes and disease states, the RPR and VDRL tests are very sensitive but not highly specific and so a confirmatory test specifically for treponemal organisms or antibodies needs to be performed. Essential components of compatibility testing include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Antibody screen on recipient's serum B) Major crossmatch or computer crossmatch C) ABO and Rh typing of recipient D) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) - ANSWER D) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) Feedback A direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is used to detect in-vivo sensitization of red blood cells with IgG or complement components. Cases in which this test is used include hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, hemolytic transfusion reaction, and autoimmune or drug induced hemolytic anemia. AABB Standards do not require a DAT for pretransfusion testing. Studies have looked into whether or not a routine DAT would benefit patient outcomes and have shown that they do not have a positive impact for the patients. All recipient have compatibility testing done that includes ABO grouping, Rh typing, and antibody screen, and a crossmatch. Which lipid does not serve as a source of fuel, but can be converted to steroid hormones? A) Fatty acids B) Cholesterol C) Triglycerides D) Phospholipids - ANSWER B) Cholesterol A 32-year-old teacher, is seeing her internist for her yearly physical. Because her great grandmother suffered from cardiac disease, she is concerned about her own risk for cardiac disease. She is not a smoker nor hypertensive, and is not overweight. She is physically active and maintains a good diet and nutrition. Her physician orders a lipid panel and hs-CRP to evaluate her cardiac disease risk. Test Patient Result Reference Range Cholesterol 189 mg/dL 200 mg/dL Triglyceride 140 mg/dL 150 mg/dL LDL- cholesterol 98 mg/dL 100 mg/dL (optimal) HDL-cholesterol 60 mg/dL 59 mg/dL (optimal) hs-CRP 0.9 mg/dL 1 mg/dL (low risk) Based on age, history, and laboratory results, what is her risk of cardiac disease at this point? A) Low risk B) Moderate risk C) High risk D) No risk - ANSWER A) Low risk An automated method for measuring chloride which generates silver ions in the reaction is called: - ANSWER Chromatography Illustrated in the top photograph is a 4-day-old white to cream-colored colony with a yeast-like background, but with the surface having a delicate silk-like consistency. Such colonies may be recovered as a contaminant in laboratory cultures. The identification is illustrated in a cornmeal agar mount shown in the bottom photograph. From these observations, the MOST likely identification of this yeast-like isolate is: A) Trichosporon beigelii B) Aureobasidium pullulans C) Geotrichum candidum D) Phaeoannelomyces werneckii - ANSWER C) Geotrichum candidum Beta thalassemia major, is also known as: A) Cooley's anemia B) Sickle cell anemia C) Milk anemia D) Pernicious anemia - ANSWER A) Cooley's anemia Feedback: Cooley's anemia is a synonym for Beta thalassemia major. Sickle cell anemia refers to either the homozygous (Hb SS) or heterozygous (Hb S) hemoglobinopathy. Milk anemia refers to a specific form of iron deficiency anemia resulting from inadequate intake of iron in an infant's diet. When an infant is switched from an iron-fortified formula or breastmilk to cow's milk too soon, his/her iron stores may become depleted resulting in a microcytic and hypochromic anemia. Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia characterized by an autoimmune process that results in the decreased production of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. What is the molarity of H2SO4 (GMW = 98) that has a specific gravity of 1.21 and an assay weight of 68% w/v? A) 0.84 M B) 8.4 M C) 1.68 M D) 16.8 M - ANSWER B) 8.4 M Feedback molarity = moles of solute liter of solution The specific gravity tells us that 1 ml of the acid solution weighs 1.21 grams, therefore 1 liter (1000 ml) of the acid will weigh 1210 grams. Because the solution is 68 percent H2SO4 by weight, 1210 grams of the solution contains: 1210 grams X 0.68 = 822.8 grams of H2SO4 The gram-formula weight of H2SO4 is 98, therefore, 822.8 grams of solution contain: Moles of H2SO4 = 822.8 grams/98 g/mole = 8.40 moles Since the concentrated sulfuric acid contains 8.40 moles of H2SO4 in 1 liter of solution, its concentration is 8.4 M. The skin infection of the foot of a farmer as illustrated in the upper photograph was caused in a farmer when walking barefoot in soil contaminated with a filariform larva. Based on the morphology of the 50 µm in diameter ovum (lower image), select from the question/answer list the species that is the presumptive cause of this infection. A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermcularis C) Necator americanus D) Ascaris lumbricoides - ANSWER C) Necator americanus How is the Mean Cell Volume calculated? A) (Hemoglobin / Red blood cells) X 10 B) (Hemoglobin / Red blood cells) X 100 C) (Hematocrit %/ Red blood cells) X 10