VERSIONS 2023-2024/ DENTAL HYGIENE HESI
EXAM 400+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
1. Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated
gingivitis found?
- ANSWER- Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors
2. A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue
movement affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? -
ANSWER- Ankyloglossia
3. When is tooth eruption complete?
- ANSWER- Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing jaw
4. When does mixed dentition begin?
- ANSWER- eruption of the first permanent tooth
5. How many succedaneums teeth are in permanent dentition?
- ANSWER- 20
6. The junction of a buckle and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique
ridge of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge.
- ANSWER- The first statement is true and the second is false
7. Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries?
- ANSWER- reduced permeability
8. Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular
second premolar? - ANSWER- Dentilingual
,8. Which is true regarding the height of contour?
- ANSWER- Greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically
9. How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr. old child?
- ANSWER- 14 primary; 10 permanent
10. Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown?
- ANSWER- line angle
11. Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth
including the incised edge or angle? - ANSWER- IV
12. Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? -
ANSWER- Oblique
13. Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? -
ANSWER- Mandibular
14. Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial
nerve? - ANSWER- VII
15. Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block?
- ANSWER- mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible
16. Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - ANSWER- Sublingual
17. Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - ANSWER- synovial
18. Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of
salivary gland secretion? - ANSWER- autonomic; sympathetic
19. Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist.
Capitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions
from saliva? - ANSWER- First statement is true second statement is false
,Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? -
ANSWER- Aciduric
Anaerobe bacteria - ANSWER- grow only in the absence of oxygen
Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - ANSWER- capsule
Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - ANSWER- Psychrophils
Endotoxin is a virulence property of - ANSWER- gram-negative bacteria
When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - ANSWER- enter host cells before
they can multiply
Which is treated with nystatin? - ANSWER- Candidiasis
Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the
hepatitis B vaccine? - ANSWER- Anti-HBs
Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination
gloves? - ANSWER- I
Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and
pharyngitis? - ANSWER- Streptococcus
Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the
EXCEPTION? - ANSWER- Nizoral
Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - ANSWER- Repaired congenital
heart disease
, It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic
heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require
antibiotic predication? - ANSWER- Renal dialysis shunt
A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - ANSWER- take
medication four times a day
Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states "NO
REFILLS" - ANSWER- schedule II controlled substance
Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide? -
ANSWER- Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION? - ANSWER- Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces
high blood pressure)
Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - ANSWER- Kale!
;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin
c
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - ANSWER-
Albuterol
short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Lipitor is a/an - ANSWER- statin
(lowers cholesterol levels)
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D
helps absorb calcium. - ANSWER- Both the statement and reason are correct but
not related.