NURS 8024 2024 COMPLETE COMPREHENSIVE
STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS
GRADE A+ 100% LATEST UPDATE
Who is the certifying body we take the WHNP boards through?
NCC (National Certification Corporation)
this is a nurse who has graduate level of education; passed national certification, built on
competencies of an RN, is educationally prepared to take on the
responsibility/accountability of patient issues
Advanced Practice Nurse (APRN)
competencies...what are they
scientific foundation
leadership
quality
practice inquiry
technology/information literacy
policy
health delivery system
ethics
independent practice
2 national organizations that provide guidelines for WHNP practice and education?
american association of colleges of nursing (AACN)
national organization of NP faculties (NONPF)
Process for certification maintenance for an NP
-cert is valid for 3 years
-complete continuing competency assessment at the beginning of your maintenance cycle
-continuing education earned is based on your education plan after the assessment is completed
maintain current/active, unencumbered licensure, update and upload licensure
main provisions of patient protection and affordable care act?
increase access to insurance
decrease cost
consumer protection
wellness/prevention
increase quality of healthcare
expand workforce
What are the four APRN roles?
NP
CNM
CNS
CRNA
The national organization of nurse practitioner faculties (NONPF) describes NINE core
,what is the scope of practice of a WHNP
providing gynecologic, sexual, obstetric, and reproductive care, mgmt, family planning, STI
dx/tx, menopause mgmt, postmenopausal care, and primary care to women.
Who Governs the scope of practice of WHNP?
**established by the nurse practice act in the STATE which they are licensed/practice in
what is prescriptive authority?
The ability and extent of NP's ability to prescribe medication; is dependent on state nurse
practice act
what are the 4 levels of management of care?
independent
consultation
referral
collaboration
example of independent level management of care
functioning as a lone provider that manages previously and undiagnosed patients.
example of consultation level management of care
request for direction or help on a dx/tx plan from another provider
example of referral level management of care
another provider accepting the ongoing treatment/care for a problem
example of collaboration level management of care
joint communication and decision-making between healthcare professionals that are working
towards mutual goals of patient care
this is the process by which an NP will receive the authority of bill insurance companies for
the services they provide; this is usually completed by the practice manager.
Involves a provider obtaining authorization to practice
credentialing/privileging process
these are considered "practice guidelines"; the "how to" of a discipline or specialty. they
clarify scope and authority r/t a specific activity by defining who can do what activity, with
what level of supervision, and when (stated at the state board/institution level)
standards of practice
provision of services in a manner consistent with care as a another professional with
similar training and experience faced with a similar situation would provide; sets minimum
criteria for job proficiency (stated by medicare, joint commission)
standards of care
independence; capacity for making decisions, judgement, knowledge, and self-
determination.
ex: clinical decision making
autonomy
Obligation to promote patient's well being, or an act of kindness/charity.
ex: holding a dying patients hand; "do good"
Beneficence
,the obligation not to harm or cause injury
ex: stopping a medication that is causing harmful SE's
nonmalifience
remaining TRUTHFUL w/ the patients regardless of any circumstances
ex: telling the patient the truth, never lying, even if it may cause distress
veracity
moral and ethics of a provider; keeping your promise
ex: telling a patient you will come back and check on their pain, and actually doing so
fidelity
unity and mutuality; FAIR distribution of resources and care in healthcare
ex: providing the same treatment options to two different patients
justice
integration of clinical expertise with the best available clinical evidence from research; is
the "conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of theory-derived, research-based
information in making decisions about care delivery to patients and in consideration of
individual needs and preferences.
evidence-based practice
What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1996)
what is the health insurance portability and accountability act?
federal law that required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient health
information from being disclosed without the patient's consent or knowledge
The process of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion; the MOVEMENT
of drugs within the body, what the BODY DOES to a drug
pharmacokinetics
study of drug concentration and the patients response; the study of a drug's EFFECT,
including the duration and magnitude of the response in relation to the drug dosage, what
the DRUG DOES to the body
pharmacodynamics
study of how different genes in the full genome determine drug behavior; identifies genes
involved in drug metabolism and drug response
pharmacogenomics
what are the four factors that affect pharmacokinetics?
distribution
absorption
metabolism
excretion
(DAME)
process by which a drug becomes available to body fluids/tissues?
distribution
The movement of drug particles from the GI tract to body fluids by passive absorption,
active absorption, or pinocytosis.
, absorption
change of a drug (primarily in the liver) by CYP450 enzymes, into metabolites that may be
active or inactive; alters a drug so it can be eliminated.
metabolism
removal of a drug from the body; primarily occurs in the kidneys, but can also occur
through the skin, lungs, bile, sweat, breast milk, or feces
excretion
use of prescribing of a drug for conditions other than what it has been approved for by the
FDA...
off-label use
warning that appears on the insert for a medication that notes harm with the use of the
drug; mandated by FDA
black-box warning
off label drug uses in pregnancy.
Unisom (morning sickness), Methotrexate (ectopic)
black-box warning in pregnancy
isotretinoin (accutane), ACE/ARB's
Drugs with NO currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
schedule I (heroin)
Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological or physical dependence and abuse are
called ____. however some do have medical use.
schedule II (methadone/morphine)
drugs with a moderate to low potential for abuse and physical and psychological
dependence
schedule III (codeine)
Drugs with low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence
schedule IV (phenobarbital)
drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV and consist of preparations
containing limited quantities of certain narcotics.
schedule V (cough preparations; Robitussin)
how do you report an adverse drug reaction or event?
call FDA directly, use the FDA adverse reporting system (FAERS)- they collect reports on
ADE's, ADR's, quality issues, usage errors, and therapeutic failures. NP's can submit reports
through the MedWatch website.
what are the 4 components of drug distribution in a pregnant woman?
distribution
absorption
metabolism
excretion
(DAME)
what happens to plasma volumes in a pregnant woman?
they INCREASE (hemodilution)
what happens to plasma proteins in a pregnant woman?
they DECREASE
what happens to total body water in a pregnant woman?
it INCREASES
STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS
GRADE A+ 100% LATEST UPDATE
Who is the certifying body we take the WHNP boards through?
NCC (National Certification Corporation)
this is a nurse who has graduate level of education; passed national certification, built on
competencies of an RN, is educationally prepared to take on the
responsibility/accountability of patient issues
Advanced Practice Nurse (APRN)
competencies...what are they
scientific foundation
leadership
quality
practice inquiry
technology/information literacy
policy
health delivery system
ethics
independent practice
2 national organizations that provide guidelines for WHNP practice and education?
american association of colleges of nursing (AACN)
national organization of NP faculties (NONPF)
Process for certification maintenance for an NP
-cert is valid for 3 years
-complete continuing competency assessment at the beginning of your maintenance cycle
-continuing education earned is based on your education plan after the assessment is completed
maintain current/active, unencumbered licensure, update and upload licensure
main provisions of patient protection and affordable care act?
increase access to insurance
decrease cost
consumer protection
wellness/prevention
increase quality of healthcare
expand workforce
What are the four APRN roles?
NP
CNM
CNS
CRNA
The national organization of nurse practitioner faculties (NONPF) describes NINE core
,what is the scope of practice of a WHNP
providing gynecologic, sexual, obstetric, and reproductive care, mgmt, family planning, STI
dx/tx, menopause mgmt, postmenopausal care, and primary care to women.
Who Governs the scope of practice of WHNP?
**established by the nurse practice act in the STATE which they are licensed/practice in
what is prescriptive authority?
The ability and extent of NP's ability to prescribe medication; is dependent on state nurse
practice act
what are the 4 levels of management of care?
independent
consultation
referral
collaboration
example of independent level management of care
functioning as a lone provider that manages previously and undiagnosed patients.
example of consultation level management of care
request for direction or help on a dx/tx plan from another provider
example of referral level management of care
another provider accepting the ongoing treatment/care for a problem
example of collaboration level management of care
joint communication and decision-making between healthcare professionals that are working
towards mutual goals of patient care
this is the process by which an NP will receive the authority of bill insurance companies for
the services they provide; this is usually completed by the practice manager.
Involves a provider obtaining authorization to practice
credentialing/privileging process
these are considered "practice guidelines"; the "how to" of a discipline or specialty. they
clarify scope and authority r/t a specific activity by defining who can do what activity, with
what level of supervision, and when (stated at the state board/institution level)
standards of practice
provision of services in a manner consistent with care as a another professional with
similar training and experience faced with a similar situation would provide; sets minimum
criteria for job proficiency (stated by medicare, joint commission)
standards of care
independence; capacity for making decisions, judgement, knowledge, and self-
determination.
ex: clinical decision making
autonomy
Obligation to promote patient's well being, or an act of kindness/charity.
ex: holding a dying patients hand; "do good"
Beneficence
,the obligation not to harm or cause injury
ex: stopping a medication that is causing harmful SE's
nonmalifience
remaining TRUTHFUL w/ the patients regardless of any circumstances
ex: telling the patient the truth, never lying, even if it may cause distress
veracity
moral and ethics of a provider; keeping your promise
ex: telling a patient you will come back and check on their pain, and actually doing so
fidelity
unity and mutuality; FAIR distribution of resources and care in healthcare
ex: providing the same treatment options to two different patients
justice
integration of clinical expertise with the best available clinical evidence from research; is
the "conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of theory-derived, research-based
information in making decisions about care delivery to patients and in consideration of
individual needs and preferences.
evidence-based practice
What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (1996)
what is the health insurance portability and accountability act?
federal law that required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient health
information from being disclosed without the patient's consent or knowledge
The process of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion; the MOVEMENT
of drugs within the body, what the BODY DOES to a drug
pharmacokinetics
study of drug concentration and the patients response; the study of a drug's EFFECT,
including the duration and magnitude of the response in relation to the drug dosage, what
the DRUG DOES to the body
pharmacodynamics
study of how different genes in the full genome determine drug behavior; identifies genes
involved in drug metabolism and drug response
pharmacogenomics
what are the four factors that affect pharmacokinetics?
distribution
absorption
metabolism
excretion
(DAME)
process by which a drug becomes available to body fluids/tissues?
distribution
The movement of drug particles from the GI tract to body fluids by passive absorption,
active absorption, or pinocytosis.
, absorption
change of a drug (primarily in the liver) by CYP450 enzymes, into metabolites that may be
active or inactive; alters a drug so it can be eliminated.
metabolism
removal of a drug from the body; primarily occurs in the kidneys, but can also occur
through the skin, lungs, bile, sweat, breast milk, or feces
excretion
use of prescribing of a drug for conditions other than what it has been approved for by the
FDA...
off-label use
warning that appears on the insert for a medication that notes harm with the use of the
drug; mandated by FDA
black-box warning
off label drug uses in pregnancy.
Unisom (morning sickness), Methotrexate (ectopic)
black-box warning in pregnancy
isotretinoin (accutane), ACE/ARB's
Drugs with NO currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
schedule I (heroin)
Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological or physical dependence and abuse are
called ____. however some do have medical use.
schedule II (methadone/morphine)
drugs with a moderate to low potential for abuse and physical and psychological
dependence
schedule III (codeine)
Drugs with low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence
schedule IV (phenobarbital)
drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV and consist of preparations
containing limited quantities of certain narcotics.
schedule V (cough preparations; Robitussin)
how do you report an adverse drug reaction or event?
call FDA directly, use the FDA adverse reporting system (FAERS)- they collect reports on
ADE's, ADR's, quality issues, usage errors, and therapeutic failures. NP's can submit reports
through the MedWatch website.
what are the 4 components of drug distribution in a pregnant woman?
distribution
absorption
metabolism
excretion
(DAME)
what happens to plasma volumes in a pregnant woman?
they INCREASE (hemodilution)
what happens to plasma proteins in a pregnant woman?
they DECREASE
what happens to total body water in a pregnant woman?
it INCREASES
