VTNE Practice Graded A+

VTNE Practice Graded A+ Ancylostoma causes which zoonotic disease in humans? A) Ocular larva migrans B) Crohn's disease C) Visceral larva migrans D) Cutaneous larva migrans D) Cutaneous larva migrans Explanation - Ancylostoma is a hookworm and is the most common cause of Cutaneous larva migrans. This is an intestinal parasite of dogs and cats. In this zoonotic disease, the parasite burrows under the skin in humans. Ocular and Visceral larva migrans are caused by Toxocara canis (roundworm). Crohn's disease is a type of severe inflammatory bowel disease in people with no correlation to our pet patients Why should atropine, a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine receptors, be used cautiously in horses (i.e. what is a major side effect of the drug)? A) Excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic) B) Excessive use can result in bradycardia C) Excessive use can result in diarrhea D) Excessive use can result in intense constriction of the pupil A) Excessive use can result in intestinal stasis (colic) Explanation - Atropine is commonly used topically to dilate the pupil in horses with uveitis; with excessive administration, atropine can cause intestinal motility to decrease, possibly resulting in abdominal pain (colic) in the horse. Atropine is also used to increase the heart rate during general anesthesia How many milliliters of dextrose should be added to a 60 ml syringe of 0.9% NaCl to make a 2.5% dextrose solution? The patient weighs 20 kg, and the dextrose in the hospital comes in a 50% concentration. A) 0.6 ml B) 1.5 ml C) 3 ml D) 36 ml E) 120 ml C) 3 ml Explanation - To answer this question, use the following equation: C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2) C is the concentration V is the volume C(1) =0.025 V(1) = 60 ml C(2) = 0.50 V(2) = x 0.025(60)= 0.50x x = 3 ml Note that the body weight is completely unnecessary to calculate the answer to this problem. 200 ml of 25% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5% solution. In dogs, which of the following are all permanent teeth with 2 roots? A) Maxillary premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 B) Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 C) Maxillary molars 1 and 2 D) Mandibular premolar 1 and molars B) Mandibular premolars 2, 3, and 4, and molar 1 2 and 3 Explanation - While exceptions do occur, the following are generally accepted and true. In dogs, all of the permanent incisors and canine teeth have 1 root. In the mandible, premolar (PM) 1 has one root. PM 2, 3, and 4 all have two roots. M 1 and 2 have two roots. M3 can have one or two roots. In the maxilla, PM 1 has one root. PM 2 and 3 have two roots, although PM 3 can sometimes have 3 roots. PM 4 and M1 and 2 all have 3 roots. Which disease occurs when the body is unable to make or utilize insulin? A) Cushing's disease B) Diabetes C) Addison's disease D) Pancreatitis E) Hyperandrogenism B) Diabetes Explanation - Diabetes mellitus occurs when the pancreas does not make insulin or when there is insulin resistance such that the body is unable to utilize insulin. Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches? A) CN I B) CN V C) CN XI D) CN XII B) CN V Explanation - Cranial nerve V (five) is the Trigeminal nerve and has three major branches: First branch: Ophthalmic nerve- sensory to the eye socket and its contents, the anterior nasal cavity, and the skin of the nose and forehead. Second branch: Maxillary nerve- sensory to maxilla, nasal cavity/sinuses, palate, and part of the face. Third branch: Mandibular nerve (the largest branch)- sensory fibers to the lower jaw, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the lower teeth, and supplies motor fibers to the muscles of mastication (note: that this is the only branch that supplies motor function). A patient who has stopped breathing after administration of a short-acting anesthetic can be described as being which of the following? A) Eupneic B) Atelectic C) Dyspneic D) Apneic D) Apneic Explanation - This patient would be apneic, which means the patient is not breathing. Dyspnea implies difficulty breathing. Eupnea is normal respiration. Atelectasis is the description given to collapsed lungs Which condition occurs least commonly in the horse? A) Laminitis B) Intestinal incarceration C) Enterolithiasis D) Urolithiasis D) Urolithiasis Explanation - As compared to small animals, urolithiasis is uncommon in horses. If they do develop stones in their bladder, it is usually secondary to formation of calcium oxalate crystals. Enterolithiasis and intestinal incarcerations are common reasons for colic in horses and usually require surgical intervention. Laminitis is a very serious and often life-threatening condition in horses. The pathophysiology of laminitis is poorly understood but involves inflammation of the lamina of the feet. It can involve all feet or even just one foot. There are multiple conditions that can lead to laminitis, such as endotoxemia, grain overload, and pneumonia. What is another method, besides drawing from the tail vein, to blood draw in a laboratory rat? A) Cephalic vein B) Periorbital plexus C) Jugular vein D) Anterior vena cava B) Periorbital plexus Explanation - The periorbital plexus can be used in sedated rats to collect small blood samples using a hematocrit tube. The other methods are not used in laboratory rats A 12-pound cat has presented with diabetic ketoacidosis and is currently in shock. The doctor orders that a 40 ml/kg bolus of 0.9% saline be administered. How many milliliters will this patient receive? A) 220 ml B) 9 ml C) 480 ml D) 36 ml A) 220 ml Explanation - The body weight needs to be converted to kilograms. 12 lb / (2.2 lb/kg) = 5.5 kg 5.5 kg x (40 ml/kg) = 220 ml Which of the following is a term for a method of urine collection from a patient in a sterile manner? A) Cystotomy B) Cystocentesis C) Cystogram D) Free catch B) Cystocentesis Explanation - Cystocentesis involves the sterile introduction of a needle into the bladder for collection of urine. A free catch is the opportunistic collection of urine from a voiding patient. This urine is not sterile because it becomes contaminated as it exits the urethra. A cystotomy is an incision into the bladder. A cystogram is a radiographic contrast study of the bladder Which species is particularly aggressive when with her young, and extreme caution must be used? A) Cows B) Sows C) Ewes D) Mares B) Sows Explanation - In general, pigs are a more aggressive species. The lactating sow is particularly dangerous; and when handling piglets, it is best to remove the sow to a separate area where she cannot hear her piglets Rabbits are prone to hairballs. What is the medical term for a hairball? A) Phytobezoar B) Dermatophyte C) Trichobezoar D) Piloerection C) Trichobezoar Explanation - Tricho refers to hair, bezoar is the compaction, "ball" that can result from different substances. Phytobezoar is a "plant - ball". Piloerection is used to describe when hair stands up. Like when a cat or dog is fearfull. Dermatophyte is the general term for skin fungus What is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs? A) 60-100 mg/kg B) 150-200 mg/kg C) 10-15 mg/kg D) 0.5-2 mg/kg A) 60-100 mg/kg Explanation - The LD50 toxic dose of theobromine in dogs which many texts list is 100-150 mg/kg, and may be the correct answer if listed as a choice. HOWEVER, this means that about 50% of pets die at this level; therefore, obviously the true toxic dose would be lower than this. In some sensitive pets, toxic doses could as low as 20 mg/kg. On average, the toxic dose is likely somewhere between 60-100 mg/kg What adverse side effect can occur in cats given metoclopramide? A) Cyanosis B) Dilated and fixed pupils C) Aggressive behavior D) Estrus behavior C) Aggressive behavior Explanation - Rare side effects that can occur are nervous, jittery, or aggressive behaviors. The antidote for these types of behaviors is diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Head bobbing can also rarely occur as a side effect of Reglan (metoclopramide). Which of the following is NOT considered good surgical instrument care? A) Using cleaning agents at a pH of approximately 10 B) Using an ultrasonic cleaner C) Using tap water D) Using a brush to scrub the instruments C) Using tap water Explanation - The use of tap water for cleaning surgical instruments is not recommended since it carries a high likelihood of leaving mineral deposits on the instruments; distilled water is preferred. Cleaning agents that have a higher pH (between approximately 9 and 11) are used because these do not promote corrosion. An ultrasonic cleaner is highly recommended as it is much more effective than manual cleaning alone. The use of a brush to scrub the instruments is common practice and facilitates the removal of dry blood or residue. Which blood cells play an important role in clotting? A) Platelets B) Erythrocytes C) Leukocytes D) Metamyelocytes A) Platelets Explanation - When a wound occurs, platelets act with fibrin to form a clot and stop bleeding. A metamyelocyte is a very immature white blood cell (that will eventually become a band) and is typically only seen in the bone marrow. A 10-year old male intact Rottweiler is currently undergoing surgery for removal of a prostatic mass. Which term best describes the procedure? A) Orchidectomy B) Cholecystectomy C) Prostatitis D) Onychectomy E) Prostatectomy E) Prostatectomy Explanation - There are a few basic rules that will allow you to comprehend a majority of the medical terms. Any term that ends with "-ectomy" infers to removal of that organ. Onychectomy is another word declawing or removal of the distal phalanx. Orchidectomy is the removal of a testicle. A cholecystectomy is removal of the gall bladder. The ending "-itis" means inflammation. In this case, prostatitis would be inflammation of the prostate Which of the following solutions used for fecal flotation floats protozoal organisms with the least distortion? A) Sodium nitrate B) Formalin C) Saturated sodium chloride D) Zinc sulfate D) Zinc sulfate Explanation - Zinc sulfate solutions are generally used in diagnostic laboratories because they cause the least distortion of organisms. Other solutions, particularly sodium nitrate, are commonly used in veterinary practices because of cost and/or convenience. It is particularly important with sodium nitrate solutions to avoid letting them sit too long, as they cause distortion and form crystals, particularly after sitting longer than 20 minutes. Saturated sodium chloride is rarely used because it distorts organisms, creates crystals, and corrodes laboratory equipment. Formalin solutions alone are not used for flotation. What does Eimeria stiedai cause? A) Intestinal coccidiosis in dogs and cats B) It is a non-pathogenic coccidia in horses C) Cloacal coccidiosis in chickens D) Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits D) Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits Explanation - Eimeria stiedai is the species of Eimeria that causes hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits. The rabbits ingest sporulated oocysts, which contain four sporozoites that hatch and travel via the hepatic portal vein to the liver and penetrate the bile duct epithelium. The schizonts in the bile duct cause bile duct hyperplasia; they block the bile duct, causing hepatomegaly, icterus, and liver failure. A tiny Chihuahua puppy presents for seizures, and the veterinarian suspects the puppy has "water on the brain" due to his enlarged head size. What is the term for this? A) Brachycephalous B) Craniostosis C) Hydrocephalus D) Paracervical edema C) Hydrocephalus Explanation - Hydrocephalus is a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid inside the skull, leading to brain swelling. Hydrocephalus means "water on the brain" How often should an IV peripheral vein catheter be replaced as a standard? A) Every 5-7 days B) Don't replace as long as it is working fine C) Every 24 hours D) Every 3 days D) Every 3 days Explanation - It is recommended to replace a peripheral catheter every 72 hours (3 days). The risk of catheter-induced sepsis goes up after this time period. Sometimes they have been left in for up to 4-5 days. Obviously, the site should be watched closely for any discharge, pain, and swelling and if these occur the catheter should be removed and another placed at a different site. A drug that is an anti-cholinergic agent will have which of the following effects? A) Decrease salivation B) Suppress the cough reflex C) Constrict the pupil of the eye D) Decrease heart rate A) Decrease salivation Explanation - Anti-cholinergic agents are drugs that antagonize the effects of acetylcholine in the autonomic nervous system. Commonly used examples of anticholinergic agents include atropine and pilocarpine. They are commonly used prior to anesthesia because they increase the heart rate (most anesthetic drugs decrease heart rate) and decrease oral secretions, which can aid intubation A patient with DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) may show abnormal red blood cells called schistocytes. What are schistocytes? A) Large blue tinged red blood cells B) Red blood cells with nuclear fragments C) Red blood cell fragments D) Nucleated red blood cells C) Red blood cell fragments Explanation - Patients with DIC frequently have schistocytes and decreased platelets on their blood smears. Schistocytes are red blood cell fragments Drugs that have no accepted medical use, are not considered safe, and have high potential for abuse are the most controlled by the DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration). Drugs under this category such as heroin are listed as what type of category? A) Schedule V controlled substance B) Schedule I controlled substance C) Schedule III controlled substance D) Schedule II controlled substance E) Schedule IV controlled substance B) Schedule I controlled substance Explanation - Schedule I substances are the most controlled and are unlikely to be available at a veterinary clinic. Schedule II substances such as morphine and fentanyl are frequently the most tightly controlled substances in a veterinary hospital Which of these are used in the minor cross-match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog? A) Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma B) Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma C) Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma D) Donor red blood cells, donor plasma C) Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma Explanation - The correct answer is recipient red blood cells, donor plasma. In a minor crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient's red blood cells How can a technician determine if a pack was sterilized appropriately? A) The tape on the outside of the pack is not broken B) The pack is steaming when removed from the autoclave C) The pack is double wrapped prior to autoclaving, ensuring sterility D) An indicator strip inside the pack changes color D) An indicator strip inside the pack changes color Explanation - The only way to know for sure if a pack has received appropriate sterilization is if the indicator strip changes color inside the pack What is a ranula? A) Anal gland infection B) Cyst on the eyelid C) Sublingual mucocele D) Sludge accumulation in the gallbladder C) Sublingual mucocele Explanation - A ranula is a fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct. They are found under the tongue Which of the following could be used for hemostasis at the site of a liver punch biopsy? A Bone wax B Gelfoam C Silver nitrate D Styptic powder B Gelfoam Explanation - Gelfoam is a sterile compressed sponge that is intended to aid in hemostasis; it allows for absorption of blood and formation of a clot at the bleeding site. It has a very useful application in liver biopsies. Bone wax controls bleeding from bone and functions as a mechanical plug that is pressed into the bleeding bone surface. Silver nitrate applicators are used to stop small superficial bleeders such as a snipped skin tag or a bleeding toenail. These are not sterile. Styptic powder is used to stop bleeding toenails and would never be used on tissues Which of the following species has a double row of incisors? A Hamster B Rabbit C Rat D Chinchilla E Guinea Pig F Ferret B Rabbit Explanation - Rabbits have a second row of incisors distal to the proximal incisors. When malocclusion occurs, it is important to trim both sets of teeth to maintain proper dentition You want to give a 22 pound cat a 5 mg/kg dose of a drug. The drug comes as a 2.5% solution. How many milliliters should you give the cat? A 0.2 B 20 C 0.4 D 4.4 E 2 F 8.8 E 2 Explanation - First, you must recognize that the cat's weight is given in pounds and should immediately be converted to kilograms. There are 2.2 lbs/kg so this is a 10 kg cat. Second, you must be able to convert a percent solution to mg/ml. A 2.5% solution is 25 mg/ml. This is hard for some students to remember. A memory tip is that a 100% solution would be 1 gram/ml. Therefore a 50% solution would be 500mg/ml, and a 5% solution would be 50 mg/ml. The math to solve this question is: 22 lbs x (1 kg/2.2 lbs) x 5mg/kg x (1ml/25mg) = 2 ml Viruses with this characteristic are significantly more resistant to environmental degradation; in other words, they survive longer in the environment. A Enveloped viruses B RNA viruses C DNA viruses D Non-enveloped viruses D Non-enveloped viruses Explanation - The correct answer is non-enveloped viruses. Non-enveloped viruses are typically very resistant to environmental degradation and therefore survive longer and are harder to disinfect than enveloped viruses. For example, parvoviruses, which are non-enveloped viruses, are difficult to disinfect and survive longer compared to influenza viruses which are enveloped. Whether a virus is a DNA or RNA virus has no effect on its environmental durability Regarding sterilization in reptiles, which is true? A Reptiles should not be sterilized due to sensitivity to anesthetics B Ovaries should always be removed during sterilization C Sterilization of female pet reptiles is recommended so that they do not develop estrogen toxicity D Only the oviducts should be removed and ovaries should be left intact B Ovaries should always be removed during sterilization Explanation - When sterilizing a reptile, the ovaries should always be removed. Removal of only the oviducts puts the patient at risk for egg binding. With just the oviducts removed, the ovaries are still active and yolks can be released into the coelomic cavity. In ferrets, spaying is recommended due to the risk of bone marrow toxicity from the high levels of circulating estrogen during prolonged heat cycles Which vaccination is most commonly given the intranasal route? A Periodontal B Distemper C Rabies D Parvo E Bordetella E Bordetella Explanation - Bordetella bronchiseptica is a common cause of kennel cough. An intranasal vaccine against Bordetella is widely used. There is also an injectable vaccine available for Bordetella The term pseudocyesis means which of the following? A Infertility B Resembling a cystic structure C Ovarian cysts D False pregnancy D False pregnancy Explanation - Pseudocyesis is a false pregnancy. Dogs can become pseudopregnant after estrus when the female dog is not bred, or if it is bred by an infertile male. Pseudopregnant dogs can develop mammary glands, lactate, and have nesting behaviors. Spaying is the best way to prevent future episodes An owner called and said that her dog ate a pack of sugarless gum containing xylitol. You tell her to bring her dog in right away. Which of the following could this cause? A Hyperglycemia B Hypoglycemia C Hypophosphatemia D Hypercalcemia B Hypoglycemia Explanation - Xylitol is a sugar alcohol found in many sugarless candies, sweets, and gum. Xylitol toxicity can be life-threatening. Dogs that ingest doses of 0.1 g/kg of xylitol are at risk for developing hypoglycemia, while dogs that ingest 0.5 g/kg may develop acute liver failure. Supportive care and dextrose for treatment of hypoglycemia are indicated Anesthetic monitoring of pet patients is one of the most important veterinary technician duties. How often should vitals be checked and recorded? A 5 minutes B 10 minutes C 20 minutes D 1 minute A 5 minutes Explanation - Most places require that readings be taken at 5 minute intervals. The requirements may vary by state or facility Which of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility? A Famotidine B Diphenhydramine C Metoclopramide D Barium C Metoclopramide Explanation - Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide, increase gastrointestinal motility. Metoclopramide (Reglan) also acts centrally as an antiemetic by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors in the chemo-receptor-trigger-zone (CRTZ). Famotidine is an H2 blocker. Diphenhydramine helps prevent mast cell degranulation. Barium is used to perform contrast studies of the gastrointestinal tract. What causes cutaneous larval migration in humans? A Echinococcus B Toxocara C Dipylidium D Ancylostoma D Ancylostoma Explanation - The correct answer is Ancylostoma. These are hookworms; when they come in contact with unprotected skin, the infective larvae penetrate the epidermis but generally cannot penetrate the basement membrane. They therefore migrate aimlessly, and the disease is usually self-limiting in humans A patient who has been diagnosed with pancreatitis should avoid foods that are high in which of the following? A Carbohydrates B Water C Vitamins D Fat E Protein D Fat Explanation - Pancreatitis means inflammation of the pancreas, the glandular organ that secretes enzymes needed to digest food. When something causes these enzymes to be activated prematurely, they can actually begin to digest the pancreas itself, resulting in pain and inflammation. There is evidence that feeding a low protein, high fat diet can induce pancreatitis Which of the following is an ectoparasite of animals? A Ancylostoma caninum B Ctenocephalides felis C Filaroides osleri D Feline infectious peritonitis E Paragonimus kellicotti B Ctenocephalides felis Explanation - By definition, an ectoparasite is a eukaryotic organism that lives on the outside of the host. Examples include lice, flies, fleas, and mites. Ctenocephalides is a flea. Ancylostoma, Filaroides, and Paragonimus are all endoparasites. Feline infectious peritonitis is not a parasite, it has a viral cause Fructosamine levels are used to evaluate the control of which of the following diseases? A Hypothyroidism B Diabetes mellitus C Cushing's disease D Addison's disease E Hyperthyroidism B Diabetes mellitus