ENA EMERGENCY NURSING ORIENTATION 3.0 ALL
QUESTIONS REVIEW 2023/2024| ANSWERED 100%
CORRECT
Which type of shock causes a temporary loss of motor, sensory, and reflex functions
below the level of a lesion? - ANSWER Spinal shock
According to the rule of nines, burns of the anterior trunk and both anterior arms
account for which percentage of body surface area? - ANSWER 27 percent
Which effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the heart?
• It increases peripheral vascular resistance.
• It enhances atrioventricular node function.
• It shortens His-Purkinje and ventricular muscle refractoriness.
• It slows sinoatrial node discharge. - ANSWER D.
Parasympathetic stimulation slows sinoatrial node discharge. Sympathetic stimulation
enhances atrioventricular node function, shortens His-Purkinje and ventricular muscle
refractoriness, and increases peripheral vascular resistance.
Hypertension is a finding in which type of poisoning?
• Opioid
• Antidepressant
• Anticholinergic
• Organophosphate - ANSWER C
For a patient with chronic immune thrombocytopenia, which intervention is the initial
treatment?
• Infuse intravenous immunoglobulin.
• Administer prednisone (Deltasone).
• Prepare the patient for a splenectomy.
• Administer cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). - ANSWER B. Administer prednisone
(Deltasone).
For which disorder is phenazopyridine (Pyridium) most commonly administered? -
ANSWER D. Urethritis
Rhabdomyolysis is a complication of which type of toxicity?
• Central nervous system stimulant
• Opiate
,• Tricyclic antidepressant
• Calcium channel blocker - ANSWER A. Central nervous system stimulant
Which intervention is used to treat a patient with ventricular fibrillation who has an
implantable cardiac defibrillator? - ANSWER Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the
anterior-posterior position and defibrillate.
For which disorder is phenazopyridine (Pyridium) most commonly administered? -
ANSWER D. Urethritis
Which term defines pain caused by the stretching of a hollow organ and is described as
cramping or a sensation of gas? - ANSWER Visceral pain
What organs does the body primarily keep blood flowing to while a patient is in the
compensatory stage of shock? - ANSWER heart and brain
Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect in a patient with alcoholic
ketoacidosis? - ANSWER Below normal to slightly elevated serum glucose level
Which finding is characteristic of preeclampsia? - ANSWER Proteinuria
Sciatic nerve damage is associated with dislocation of which joint?
• Patellar
• Knee
• Hip
• Ankle - ANSWER C. Hip
Which kind of intervention is recommended for a patient who exhibits restlessness,
insufficient chest expansion, and circumferential full-thickness burns on the chest? -
ANSWER Escharotomy
Calcium channel blockers are indicated to treat which dysrhythmia?
• Atrial fibrillation
• Accelerated junctional tachycardia
• Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II
• Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia - ANSWER A.
Treatment of atrial fibrillation aims to control the rapid ventricular rate with medications,
such as calcium channel blockers or beta-blockers. Calcium channel blockers are not
used to treat the other dysrhythmias listed. Accelerated junctional tachycardia is a
transient rhythm that only requires treatment of the underlying disorder. Patients with
second-degree atrioventricular block, type II, require careful monitoring and may need
transcutaneous pacing. Treatment for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is
magnesium sulfate and defibrillation if the patient's condition is unstable.
,Activated charcoal can absorb which substance?
• Cyanide
• Kerosene
• Lead
• Potassium - ANSWER B
Which herb can decrease the clotting time?
• Evening primrose
• Cinnamon
• Garlic
• Skull cap - ANSWER B. Cinnamon
Which medication causes urine retention? - ANSWER D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
The ingestion of the foxglove plant can cause which finding?
• Hypertension
• Bradycardia
• Agitation
• Lacrimation - ANSWER B. Bradycardia
Which medication causes urine retention? - ANSWER D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Which course of action is suitable for a patient with a gunshot wound?
• Perform a neurovascular assessment of each limb.
• Estimate the amount of injury based on the wounds appearance.
• Remove projectiles with Kelly clamps and place them in a sterile container.
• Label the entrance and exits wounds. - ANSWER A. Perform a neurovascular
assessment of each limb.
Which disorder is associated with fatty, foul-smelling stool? - ANSWER Pancreatitis
Emergency needle thoracentesis is a treatment for which type of shock - ANSWER
obstructive shock
In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect to find which effect of
ketoacidosis? - ANSWER Tachycardia
Which examination result in a pregnant patient could indicate the beginning of
preeclampsia?
- ANSWER A systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mm Hg
, Which dysrhythmia has an irregularly irregular ventricular response - ANSWER Atrial
fibrillation
Which of the following statements regarding autonomic dysreflexia is correct? -
ANSWER It may occur at any time after spinal shock has subsided.
A scald burn is most likely to result from which mechanism? - ANSWER Exposure to
water at 140°F (60°C)
Which intervention is applied to a ventricular fibrillation patient who has an implanted
cardiac defibrillator?
• Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position and
defibrillate.
• Wait for the device to fire.
• Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the standard position and cardiovert.
• Apply one hands-free adhesive patch over the device and the other on the
opposite side of the sternum and defibrillate. - ANSWER A.
When a patient with an implantable cardiac defibrillator requires external defibrillation
because the implanted device has malfunctioned or failed, ideally place hands-free
adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position. Do not wait for the device to fire
because a malfunction has occurred if ventricular fibrillation is present. Cardioversion is
not appropriate because no QRS complexes are present for synchronization. Do not
place the adhesive patches directly over the implantable cardiac defibrillator.
Organophosphate toxicity produces which sign or symptom?
• Constipation
• Salivation
• Mydriasis
• Hot, dry skin - ANSWER B
A patient with severe neutropenia has a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C). Which
intervention is indicated for this patient?
• Obtain blood cultures.
• Maintain respiratory isolation.
• Administer packed red blood cells.
• Administer antibody-purified factor IX. - ANSWER A. Obtain blood cultures.
The administration of azithromycin (Zithromax) is indicated for which sexually
transmitted infection? - ANSWER C. Chlamydia infection
Which method of stomach decontamination works best for treating a patient who has
consumed balloons packed with cocaine?
QUESTIONS REVIEW 2023/2024| ANSWERED 100%
CORRECT
Which type of shock causes a temporary loss of motor, sensory, and reflex functions
below the level of a lesion? - ANSWER Spinal shock
According to the rule of nines, burns of the anterior trunk and both anterior arms
account for which percentage of body surface area? - ANSWER 27 percent
Which effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the heart?
• It increases peripheral vascular resistance.
• It enhances atrioventricular node function.
• It shortens His-Purkinje and ventricular muscle refractoriness.
• It slows sinoatrial node discharge. - ANSWER D.
Parasympathetic stimulation slows sinoatrial node discharge. Sympathetic stimulation
enhances atrioventricular node function, shortens His-Purkinje and ventricular muscle
refractoriness, and increases peripheral vascular resistance.
Hypertension is a finding in which type of poisoning?
• Opioid
• Antidepressant
• Anticholinergic
• Organophosphate - ANSWER C
For a patient with chronic immune thrombocytopenia, which intervention is the initial
treatment?
• Infuse intravenous immunoglobulin.
• Administer prednisone (Deltasone).
• Prepare the patient for a splenectomy.
• Administer cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). - ANSWER B. Administer prednisone
(Deltasone).
For which disorder is phenazopyridine (Pyridium) most commonly administered? -
ANSWER D. Urethritis
Rhabdomyolysis is a complication of which type of toxicity?
• Central nervous system stimulant
• Opiate
,• Tricyclic antidepressant
• Calcium channel blocker - ANSWER A. Central nervous system stimulant
Which intervention is used to treat a patient with ventricular fibrillation who has an
implantable cardiac defibrillator? - ANSWER Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the
anterior-posterior position and defibrillate.
For which disorder is phenazopyridine (Pyridium) most commonly administered? -
ANSWER D. Urethritis
Which term defines pain caused by the stretching of a hollow organ and is described as
cramping or a sensation of gas? - ANSWER Visceral pain
What organs does the body primarily keep blood flowing to while a patient is in the
compensatory stage of shock? - ANSWER heart and brain
Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect in a patient with alcoholic
ketoacidosis? - ANSWER Below normal to slightly elevated serum glucose level
Which finding is characteristic of preeclampsia? - ANSWER Proteinuria
Sciatic nerve damage is associated with dislocation of which joint?
• Patellar
• Knee
• Hip
• Ankle - ANSWER C. Hip
Which kind of intervention is recommended for a patient who exhibits restlessness,
insufficient chest expansion, and circumferential full-thickness burns on the chest? -
ANSWER Escharotomy
Calcium channel blockers are indicated to treat which dysrhythmia?
• Atrial fibrillation
• Accelerated junctional tachycardia
• Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II
• Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia - ANSWER A.
Treatment of atrial fibrillation aims to control the rapid ventricular rate with medications,
such as calcium channel blockers or beta-blockers. Calcium channel blockers are not
used to treat the other dysrhythmias listed. Accelerated junctional tachycardia is a
transient rhythm that only requires treatment of the underlying disorder. Patients with
second-degree atrioventricular block, type II, require careful monitoring and may need
transcutaneous pacing. Treatment for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is
magnesium sulfate and defibrillation if the patient's condition is unstable.
,Activated charcoal can absorb which substance?
• Cyanide
• Kerosene
• Lead
• Potassium - ANSWER B
Which herb can decrease the clotting time?
• Evening primrose
• Cinnamon
• Garlic
• Skull cap - ANSWER B. Cinnamon
Which medication causes urine retention? - ANSWER D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
The ingestion of the foxglove plant can cause which finding?
• Hypertension
• Bradycardia
• Agitation
• Lacrimation - ANSWER B. Bradycardia
Which medication causes urine retention? - ANSWER D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Which course of action is suitable for a patient with a gunshot wound?
• Perform a neurovascular assessment of each limb.
• Estimate the amount of injury based on the wounds appearance.
• Remove projectiles with Kelly clamps and place them in a sterile container.
• Label the entrance and exits wounds. - ANSWER A. Perform a neurovascular
assessment of each limb.
Which disorder is associated with fatty, foul-smelling stool? - ANSWER Pancreatitis
Emergency needle thoracentesis is a treatment for which type of shock - ANSWER
obstructive shock
In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect to find which effect of
ketoacidosis? - ANSWER Tachycardia
Which examination result in a pregnant patient could indicate the beginning of
preeclampsia?
- ANSWER A systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mm Hg
, Which dysrhythmia has an irregularly irregular ventricular response - ANSWER Atrial
fibrillation
Which of the following statements regarding autonomic dysreflexia is correct? -
ANSWER It may occur at any time after spinal shock has subsided.
A scald burn is most likely to result from which mechanism? - ANSWER Exposure to
water at 140°F (60°C)
Which intervention is applied to a ventricular fibrillation patient who has an implanted
cardiac defibrillator?
• Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position and
defibrillate.
• Wait for the device to fire.
• Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the standard position and cardiovert.
• Apply one hands-free adhesive patch over the device and the other on the
opposite side of the sternum and defibrillate. - ANSWER A.
When a patient with an implantable cardiac defibrillator requires external defibrillation
because the implanted device has malfunctioned or failed, ideally place hands-free
adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position. Do not wait for the device to fire
because a malfunction has occurred if ventricular fibrillation is present. Cardioversion is
not appropriate because no QRS complexes are present for synchronization. Do not
place the adhesive patches directly over the implantable cardiac defibrillator.
Organophosphate toxicity produces which sign or symptom?
• Constipation
• Salivation
• Mydriasis
• Hot, dry skin - ANSWER B
A patient with severe neutropenia has a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C). Which
intervention is indicated for this patient?
• Obtain blood cultures.
• Maintain respiratory isolation.
• Administer packed red blood cells.
• Administer antibody-purified factor IX. - ANSWER A. Obtain blood cultures.
The administration of azithromycin (Zithromax) is indicated for which sexually
transmitted infection? - ANSWER C. Chlamydia infection
Which method of stomach decontamination works best for treating a patient who has
consumed balloons packed with cocaine?
