Correct Answers
A nurse is teaching a client with genital herpes. Education for this client should include an explanation
of:
a) why the disease is transmittable only when visible lesions are present.
b) the need for the use of petroleum products.
c) the option of disregarding safer-sex practices now that he's already infected.
d) the importance of informing his partners of the disease.
D) Importance of informing his partners of the disease.
Clients with genital herpes should inform their partners of the disease to help prevent transmission.
Petroleum products should be avoided because they can cause the virus to spread. The notion that
genital herpes is only transmittable when visible lesions are present is false. Anyone not in a long-
term, monogamous relationship, regardless of current health status, should follow safer-sex practices.
A 22-year-old patient has presented to her primary care provider for her scheduled Pap smear.
Abnormal results of this diagnostic test may imply infection with:
a) human papillomavirus (HPV).
b) Chlamydia trachomatis.
c) Candida albicans.
d) Trichomonas vaginalis.
A) human papillomavirus (HPV)
Although a Pap smear does not test directly for HPV, dysplasia of cervical cells is strongly associated
with HPV infection. An abnormal Pap smear is not indicative of chlamydial infection, trichomoniasis,
or candidiasis.
A female college student is distressed at the recent appearance of genital warts, an assessment
finding that her care provider has confirmed as attributable to human papillomavirus (HPV) infection.
Which of the following information should the nurse give the patient?
a) "It's important to start treatment soon, so you will be prescribed pills today."
b) "I'd like to give you an HPV vaccination if that's okay with you."
c) "There is a chance that these will clear up on their own without any treatment."
d) "Unfortunately, this is going to greatly increase your chance of developing pelvic inflammatory
disease."
C) There is a chance that these will clear up on their own without any tx
Genital warts may resolve spontaneously, although this does not preclude recurrence. Pharmacologic
treatments are topical and vaccination is ineffective after infection has occurred. HPV infection is not
correlated with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
The physical assessment and history of a 29-year-old female patient are indicative of human
papillomavirus (HPV) infection. You would perform patient teaching related to
A) Gardasil.
B) Antibiotic therapy.
C) Wart removal options.
D) Treatment with antiviral drugs.
C) Wart removal options
The HPV vaccine (Gardasil) is ineffective in cases of existing HPV, whereas neither antiviral nor
antibiotic drugs are effective treatments. Patient teaching should focus on the various options for
physically removing the warts.