CPN Practice Questions 101-150
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is a post-infectious disorder causing
nephropathy,
hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia. It is seen following upper respiratory
illnesses and
following GI infections after eating meat contaminated with bacteria. What enteric
bacteria
have been linked to HUS?
A. Escherichia coli O157:H7.
B. Clostridium difficile.
C. Rotavirus.
D. Vibrio cholera. - CORRECT ANSWER-A: E. coli O157:H7 from contaminated
ground meat is the most common bacterial cause of HUS although other
bacteria, such as Shigella dysenteriae, may also cause HUS.
Hypertension can be seen in the pediatric population. What is the most common
cause of
secondary hypertension in children?
A. Coarctation of the aorta.
B. Renal disease.
C. Neuroblastomas.
D. Drug toxicity. - CORRECT ANSWER-B: Renal disease is the most common
cause of secondary hypertension in the pediatric population. Coarctation of the
aorta, neuroblastoma, and drug toxicity are less common causes of secondary
hypertension. Primary hypertension is also on the rise, related to obesity, lack of
exercise, and poor nutrition
A 16-year-old female is brought into the ED with an intentional overdose of
acetaminophen.
In order to prevent liver toxicity what medication can be given?
A. N-Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
B. Activated charcoal.
C. Ipecac syrup.
D. Naloxone (Narcan). - CORRECT ANSWER-A: N-Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is
the medication used for acetaminophen overdoses. Toxicity occurs with dosage
,>140 mg/kg in one dose or >7.5g in 24 hours. The 72-hour N- acetylcysteine
(NAC) protocol includes 140 mg/kg initially and 70 mg/kg every 4 hours for 17
more doses (orally or IV). Naloxone is used for opiate overdoses, and activated
charcoal is used for numerous other medication overdoses.
Following a severe motor vehicle accident, a 10-year-old male has a hemisection
of the
spinal cord with associated ipsilateral weakness and loss of proprioception and
contralateral
loss of pain and temperature sensation. What is this spinal cord syndrome
called?
A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Complete cord injury
C. Brown-Sequard syndrome
D. Posterior cord syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER-C: Hemisection of the spinal
cord, severing it on one side only, and its associated symptoms are referred to as
Brown-Sequard syndrome. Anterior cord syndrome results in loss of motor
abilities and some sensations (temperature, pain, vibration) below injury.
Posterior cord syndrome retains motor functions but some sensation is lost below
injury. Complete cord injury results in bilateral paralysis and lack of sensation
below injury.
A 2-year-old male inadvertently ingests some opiates from his parent's
prescription
medication. Which of the following would NOT be a likely physical finding?
A. Decreased respiratory rate.
B. Lethargy.
C. Decreased bowel sounds.
D. Pupillary dilation. - CORRECT ANSWER-D: Pupillary constriction, not dilation,
is a hallmark of opiate overdose. Decreased respiratory rate, lethargy, and
decreased bowel sounds are common physical symptoms of opiate overdose.
A 10-year-old child is to have a venipuncture done at the femoral site. Which of
the
following anatomic structures is most medial in the inguinal area?
A. Femoral vein.
B. Femoral artery.
, C. Femoral nerve.
D. Anterior superior iliac crest. - CORRECT ANSWER-A: The femoral vein is the
most medial structure in the inguinal canal, so venipuncture should be attempted
medially to where the femoral artery is palpated at the femoral triangle.
An early-adolescent female is described by her mother as having no interest in
participating
in any activities with her parents. What aspect of psychosocial development does
this reflect?
A. Identity.
B. Peer pressure.
C. Body Image.
D. Independence. - CORRECT ANSWER-D: Decreased interest in parental
activities is consistent with independence activities in which the adolescent
begins to move away from the dependence of childhood to establish her own
identity. This period is often characterized by rebellion and withdrawal from the
family.
A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic asking for oral contraceptive pills.
Which of the
following medical problems in the past would contraindicate the use of oral
contraceptives?
A. Migraine headaches.
B. Depression.
C. Deep vein thrombosis.
D. Pneumonia. - CORRECT ANSWER-C: A history of thromboembolic disease,
such as deep vein thrombosis, is a contraindication to the use of oral
contraceptive pills, as this is a side effect of the drugs.
A 7-year-old male has a history of supraventricular tachycardia. His ECG shows
a shortened
PR interval, a delta wave, and a wide QRS pattern. What is the most likely
conduction
disturbance?
A. Left bundle branch block (LBBB).
B. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW).
C. Right bundle branch block (RBBB).
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is a post-infectious disorder causing
nephropathy,
hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia. It is seen following upper respiratory
illnesses and
following GI infections after eating meat contaminated with bacteria. What enteric
bacteria
have been linked to HUS?
A. Escherichia coli O157:H7.
B. Clostridium difficile.
C. Rotavirus.
D. Vibrio cholera. - CORRECT ANSWER-A: E. coli O157:H7 from contaminated
ground meat is the most common bacterial cause of HUS although other
bacteria, such as Shigella dysenteriae, may also cause HUS.
Hypertension can be seen in the pediatric population. What is the most common
cause of
secondary hypertension in children?
A. Coarctation of the aorta.
B. Renal disease.
C. Neuroblastomas.
D. Drug toxicity. - CORRECT ANSWER-B: Renal disease is the most common
cause of secondary hypertension in the pediatric population. Coarctation of the
aorta, neuroblastoma, and drug toxicity are less common causes of secondary
hypertension. Primary hypertension is also on the rise, related to obesity, lack of
exercise, and poor nutrition
A 16-year-old female is brought into the ED with an intentional overdose of
acetaminophen.
In order to prevent liver toxicity what medication can be given?
A. N-Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
B. Activated charcoal.
C. Ipecac syrup.
D. Naloxone (Narcan). - CORRECT ANSWER-A: N-Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is
the medication used for acetaminophen overdoses. Toxicity occurs with dosage
,>140 mg/kg in one dose or >7.5g in 24 hours. The 72-hour N- acetylcysteine
(NAC) protocol includes 140 mg/kg initially and 70 mg/kg every 4 hours for 17
more doses (orally or IV). Naloxone is used for opiate overdoses, and activated
charcoal is used for numerous other medication overdoses.
Following a severe motor vehicle accident, a 10-year-old male has a hemisection
of the
spinal cord with associated ipsilateral weakness and loss of proprioception and
contralateral
loss of pain and temperature sensation. What is this spinal cord syndrome
called?
A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Complete cord injury
C. Brown-Sequard syndrome
D. Posterior cord syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER-C: Hemisection of the spinal
cord, severing it on one side only, and its associated symptoms are referred to as
Brown-Sequard syndrome. Anterior cord syndrome results in loss of motor
abilities and some sensations (temperature, pain, vibration) below injury.
Posterior cord syndrome retains motor functions but some sensation is lost below
injury. Complete cord injury results in bilateral paralysis and lack of sensation
below injury.
A 2-year-old male inadvertently ingests some opiates from his parent's
prescription
medication. Which of the following would NOT be a likely physical finding?
A. Decreased respiratory rate.
B. Lethargy.
C. Decreased bowel sounds.
D. Pupillary dilation. - CORRECT ANSWER-D: Pupillary constriction, not dilation,
is a hallmark of opiate overdose. Decreased respiratory rate, lethargy, and
decreased bowel sounds are common physical symptoms of opiate overdose.
A 10-year-old child is to have a venipuncture done at the femoral site. Which of
the
following anatomic structures is most medial in the inguinal area?
A. Femoral vein.
B. Femoral artery.
, C. Femoral nerve.
D. Anterior superior iliac crest. - CORRECT ANSWER-A: The femoral vein is the
most medial structure in the inguinal canal, so venipuncture should be attempted
medially to where the femoral artery is palpated at the femoral triangle.
An early-adolescent female is described by her mother as having no interest in
participating
in any activities with her parents. What aspect of psychosocial development does
this reflect?
A. Identity.
B. Peer pressure.
C. Body Image.
D. Independence. - CORRECT ANSWER-D: Decreased interest in parental
activities is consistent with independence activities in which the adolescent
begins to move away from the dependence of childhood to establish her own
identity. This period is often characterized by rebellion and withdrawal from the
family.
A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic asking for oral contraceptive pills.
Which of the
following medical problems in the past would contraindicate the use of oral
contraceptives?
A. Migraine headaches.
B. Depression.
C. Deep vein thrombosis.
D. Pneumonia. - CORRECT ANSWER-C: A history of thromboembolic disease,
such as deep vein thrombosis, is a contraindication to the use of oral
contraceptive pills, as this is a side effect of the drugs.
A 7-year-old male has a history of supraventricular tachycardia. His ECG shows
a shortened
PR interval, a delta wave, and a wide QRS pattern. What is the most likely
conduction
disturbance?
A. Left bundle branch block (LBBB).
B. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW).
C. Right bundle branch block (RBBB).
