NSG6430 Womens Health Final questions and answers.

A 24-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of thin, greenish yellow vaginal discharge with perivaginal irritation. Physical examination findings include vaginal erythema with petechial hemorrhages on the cervix, numerous white blood cells, and motile organisms on microscopic examination. These findings most likely represent: Question 57 options: A) motile sperm with irritative vaginitis B) trichomoniasis C) bacterial vaginosis D) condyloma acuminatum - B) trichomoniasis A 30-year-old woman presents without symptoms but states that her male partner has dysuria without penile discharge. Examination of the woman reveals a friable cervix with yellow discharge from the cervical os. This description is most consistent with an infection caused by: Select all that apply. Question 55 options: A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Neisseria gonorrhoeaeC) Human papilloma virus (HPV) D) Trichomonas vaginalis - A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Trichomonas vaginalis A 44 year-old African American female presents with complaints of menorrhagia x 15 months. Pelvic ultrasound confirms the presence of a large intramural leiomyomata. The nurse practitioner should discuss all of the following options with the patient except: Question 19 options: GnRH agonist therapy Referral for surgical consult Progestin therapy Estrogen therapy - Estrogen therapy A fifty-five-year-old postmenopausal female patient presents with pain in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast for over one month now. The best course of action would be to _______. Question 78 options: A) reassure the patient that pain is often not a presenting symptom of breast cancer