WGU D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse Questions and Verified
Answers|100% Correct
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
ANSWER-Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the
affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - ANSWER-Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - ANSWER-Chorionic
villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT)
are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a
form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is
usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is
a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed
during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is
performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
missing gene? - ANSWER-Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is
caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic,
low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
,How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - ANSWER-The
disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs
of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a
female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - ANSWER-Relative
risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? -
ANSWER-Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough
and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - ANSWER-The imprinted gene
is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation
and wound healing? - ANSWER-The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? -
ANSWER-Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - ANSWER-Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - ANSWER-Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - ANSWER-Immunogenicity is primarily based on the
ability to recognize something foreign.
,How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility? - ANSWER-The complement pathway is
activated in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? -
ANSWER-An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - ANSWER-Infection with
a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers
to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which
include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - ANSWER-Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due
to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - ANSWER-Exotoxins are released during
bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - ANSWER-The results of decreased fat consumption
have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing
colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years
most likely to develop? - ANSWER-Asbestos exposure results in an increased
risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - ANSWER-UV
light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB
rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
, together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or
cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? -
ANSWER-Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure
control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - ANSWER-TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
True or false - ANSWER-True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial
for understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - ANSWER-Low literacy often
leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication
instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for
understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? -
ANSWER-Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - ANSWER-Regulation of appetite-Research
has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of
appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in
600 black Americans an example of? - ANSWER-Prevalence tells us how often
Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse Questions and Verified
Answers|100% Correct
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
ANSWER-Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the
affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - ANSWER-Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - ANSWER-Chorionic
villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT)
are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a
form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is
usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is
a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed
during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is
performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
missing gene? - ANSWER-Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is
caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic,
low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
,How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - ANSWER-The
disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs
of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a
female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - ANSWER-Relative
risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? -
ANSWER-Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough
and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - ANSWER-The imprinted gene
is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation
and wound healing? - ANSWER-The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? -
ANSWER-Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - ANSWER-Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - ANSWER-Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - ANSWER-Immunogenicity is primarily based on the
ability to recognize something foreign.
,How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility? - ANSWER-The complement pathway is
activated in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? -
ANSWER-An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - ANSWER-Infection with
a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers
to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which
include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - ANSWER-Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due
to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - ANSWER-Exotoxins are released during
bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - ANSWER-The results of decreased fat consumption
have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing
colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years
most likely to develop? - ANSWER-Asbestos exposure results in an increased
risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - ANSWER-UV
light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB
rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
, together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or
cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? -
ANSWER-Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure
control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - ANSWER-TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
True or false - ANSWER-True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial
for understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - ANSWER-Low literacy often
leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication
instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for
understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? -
ANSWER-Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - ANSWER-Regulation of appetite-Research
has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of
appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in
600 black Americans an example of? - ANSWER-Prevalence tells us how often
