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Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers 5th Edition Woo Robinson Test Bank / (CHAPTERS 23 & 24, complete questions and Correct answers) . Graded A+

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Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers 5th Edition Woo Robinson Test Bank / (CHAPTERS 23 & 24, complete questions and Correct answers) . Graded A+

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Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice Nurse
Prescribers 5th Edition Woo Robinson Test Bank /
(CHAPTERS 23 & 24, complete questions and
Correct answers) 2024-2025. Graded A+
A 19-year-old patient was diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis. Which antibiotic would
be most appropriate for this patient?
1.
Cipro tablets
2.
Ocuflox solution
3.
Levaquin tablets
4.
Cleocin solution - ANSOption 2:
Ocuflox solution would be the eye drop antibiotic prescribed in this case.

A 23-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a 24-hour history of zoster
outbreak. When would therapy with a nucleoside analog be initiated for greatest effect?
1.
Within 3 days
2.
Within 4 days
3.
Within 2 days
4.
Within 5 days - ANS3.
Within 2 days
Option 3:
Therapy is most effective if initiated within 48 hours of the outbreak of the rash.

Rationales
Option 1:
Therapy with nucleoside analogues should be initiated within 3 days of the outbreak of
the rash in herpes zoster.
Option 2:
Therapy would be losing effect after 4 days following outbreak of rash.

A 23-year-old patient was diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginal infection. Which
medication is most appropriate for this patient?
1.
A single dose of 2 g metronidazole

,2.
A single dose of 1 g metronidazole
3.
A single dose of 5 g tinidazole
4.
A single dose of 500 mg tinidazole - ANS1.
A single dose of 2 g metronidazole
Option 1:
One-day treatment with metronidazole is 2 g as a single dose or tinidazole 2 g orally in
a single dose; 7-day treatment is 500 mg twice a day.

Rationales
Option 2:
One-day treatment with metronidazole is more than 1 g as a single dose.
Option 3:
One-day treatment with tinidazole is less than 5 g orally in a single dose.
Option 4:
One-day treatment with tinidazole is more than 500 mg orally in a single dose.

A 24-year-old patient was diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. Which medication dosage
is most appropriate for this patient?
1.
Tinidazole 2 g oral dose once daily for 2 days taken with food
2.
Tinidazole 1 g oral dose once daily for 2 days taken with food
3.
Tinidazole 1 g oral dose once daily for 7 days taken with food
4.
Tinidazole 2 g oral dose once daily for 7 days taken with food - ANS1.
Tinidazole 2 g oral dose once daily for 2 days taken with food
Option 1:
The recommended dose of tinidazole in nonpregnant females with bacterial vaginosis is
a 2 g oral dose once daily for 2 days taken with food or a 1 g oral dose once daily for 5
days taken with food.

A 33-year-old female has been diagnosed with genital herpes, and this is her first
outbreak. Which recommended dose of antiviral will the APN prescribe to this patient?
1.
Acyclovir 200 mg 5 times per day for 10 days
2.
Acyclovir 500 mg 5 times per day for 10 days
3.
Acyclovir 200 mg 3 times per day for 10 days
4.
Acyclovir 500 mg 3 times per day for 10 days - ANS1.
Acyclovir 200 mg 5 times per day for 10 days

, Option 1:
Acyclovir 200 mg every 4 hours while awake, 5 times per day for 10 days is the
recommended dose for treatment of the initial episode of genital herpes.

Rationales
Option 2:
The initial recommended dose of acyclovir is fewer than 200 mg.
Option 3:
An accepted off-label dose of acyclovir is 400 mg, not 200 mg, 3 times per day for 10
days.
Option 4:
An accepted off-label dose of acyclovir is 400 mg, not 500 mg, 3 times per day for 10
days.

A 33-year-old female patient is diagnosed with vaginal candidiasis. Which medication
and dosage are most appropriate for the APN to prescribe?
1.
Itraconazole 100 mg as single PO dose
2.
Fluconazole 150 mg as single PO dose
3.
Fluconazole 100 mg as single PO dose
4.
Itraconazole 150 mg as single PO dose - ANS2.
Fluconazole 150 mg as single PO dose
Option 2:
Fluconazole 150 mg as single PO dose is the correct medication and dosage.

Rationales
Option 1:
Itraconazole 100 mg as single PO dose is appropriate treatment for esophageal
candidiasis but not vaginal candidiasis.
Option 3:
This dose of fluconazole is too low.
Option 4:
Itraconazole 150 mg as single PO dose is appropriate treatment for esophageal
candidiasis but not vaginal candidiasis.

A 33-year-old pregnant female patient has developed community-acquired pneumonia
(CAP). Which antibiotic is most appropriate for this patient?
1.
Levaquin
2.
Avelox
3.
Noroxin

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