RNC-LRN Exam with Questions and Answers
Practice Test 2 Latest Updated 2024
Q1. Which fetal shunt diverts blood flow away from the immature pulmonary circuit?
A. Foramen ovale
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Ductus venosus
Answer: B
Explanation: The ductus arteriosus shunt ensures that only a small volume of blood passes
through the immature pulmonary circuit, maintaining circulation efficiency.
Q2. What is the normal range for fetal heart rate using a fetoscope?
A. 80-100 BPM
B. 120-160 BPM
C. 180-200 BPM
Answer: B
Explanation: Normal fetal heart rate ranges between 120 and 160 beats per minute (BPM),
ensuring adequate oxygenation and fetal well-being.
Q3. When is GBS screening usually conducted during pregnancy?
A. 20-24 weeks
B. 30-32 weeks
C. 35-37 weeks
Answer: C
Explanation: GBS screening typically occurs between weeks 35 and 37 of pregnancy to initiate
preventive measures before labor.
Q4. When might a nonstress test be recommended during pregnancy?
A. At 12 weeks
B. After 28 weeks
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,C. After 20 weeks
Answer: B
Explanation: NSTs are usually conducted after 28 weeks to ensure fetal heart rate can respond
to movements, crucial for assessing fetal health.
Q5. What does a biophysical profile assess?
A. Fetal heart rate only
B. Fetal movement, muscle tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid
C. Maternal health conditions
Answer: B
Explanation: A biophysical profile evaluates fetal well-being by assessing movement, muscle
tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid level via ultrasound.
Q6. In antepartum testing, which examination involves measuring the depth of amniotic fluid
pockets using ultrasound?
A. Breast Stimulation Stress Test
B. Biophysical Profile
C. Amniotic Fluid Index (AFI)
Answer: C
Explanation: The Amniotic Fluid Index (AFI) determines amniotic fluid levels via ultrasound,
crucial for assessing fetal health and the potential need for early delivery.
Q7. During a routine delivery, a neonate exhibits vigorous crying at birth with good muscle
tone and respiratory effort. However, upon cord blood gas analysis, the pH is 7.10 and the
base excess is -10 mmol/L. What is the appropriate action?
A. Initiate immediate cooling therapy
B. Perform a sepsis workup
C. Monitor closely for neurological symptoms
Answer: C
Explanation: Despite the abnormal cord gas values, the neonate's clinical presentation suggests
normal transitional physiology.
Q8. A 42-year-old woman is in her 30th week of pregnancy. Which intervention should the
nurse prioritize?
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,A. Administering an influenza vaccine
B. Recommending increased caffeine intake
C. Encouraging high-impact exercises
Answer: A
Explanation: Influenza vaccination is crucial for pregnant women over 35 to prevent
complications.
Q9. A 32-year-old pregnant woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. What intervention
should the nurse prioritize?
A. Initiating insulin therapy
B. Recommending a high-carbohydrate diet
C. Encouraging regular exercise
Answer: C
Explanation: Exercise is crucial in managing gestational diabetes as it helps regulate blood
glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity.
Q10. A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents with sudden onset of severe
headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg, and
proteinuria is detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
Answer: C
Explanation: Sudden onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks' gestation is indicative
of preeclampsia.
Q11. In a prenatal check-up, a woman with oligohydramnios shows signs of intrauterine
growth restriction. What condition should be suspected in the fetus?
A. Pulmonary hypoplasia
B. Congenital heart defect
C. Gestational diabetes
Answer: A
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, Explanation: Oligohydramnios, especially with intrauterine growth restriction, increases the risk
of pulmonary hypoplasia due to insufficient amniotic fluid for proper lung development.
Q12. Which factor increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) during labor and
delivery?
A. Vaginal delivery without tearing
B. Administration of tocolytics
C. Absence of previous PPH history
Answer: B
Explanation: Administering tocolytics to halt labor increases PPH risk, as it can lead to uterine
atony, a major cause of excessive bleeding.
Q13. What is the primary concern regarding the health of a premature baby?
A. Anemia
B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
Answer: B
Explanation: Bronchopulmonary dysplasia, characterized by underdeveloped lungs, is a
common health concern in premature infants.
Q14. Which physiological characteristic of the respiratory system is commonly observed in
full-term newborns shortly after birth?
A. Respiratory rate of 20-30l/min
B. Fluctuating respiratory rate of 40-60l/min
C. Stable respiratory rate of 70-80l/min
Answer: B
Explanation: Full-term newborns often exhibit a fluctuating respiratory rate of 40-60l/min, with
occasional irregularities that normalize within the first few hours after birth.
Q15. Which factor is not associated with an increased risk of post-term pregnancy?
A. Primiparity
B. Female fetus
C. Low maternal BMI
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Practice Test 2 Latest Updated 2024
Q1. Which fetal shunt diverts blood flow away from the immature pulmonary circuit?
A. Foramen ovale
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Ductus venosus
Answer: B
Explanation: The ductus arteriosus shunt ensures that only a small volume of blood passes
through the immature pulmonary circuit, maintaining circulation efficiency.
Q2. What is the normal range for fetal heart rate using a fetoscope?
A. 80-100 BPM
B. 120-160 BPM
C. 180-200 BPM
Answer: B
Explanation: Normal fetal heart rate ranges between 120 and 160 beats per minute (BPM),
ensuring adequate oxygenation and fetal well-being.
Q3. When is GBS screening usually conducted during pregnancy?
A. 20-24 weeks
B. 30-32 weeks
C. 35-37 weeks
Answer: C
Explanation: GBS screening typically occurs between weeks 35 and 37 of pregnancy to initiate
preventive measures before labor.
Q4. When might a nonstress test be recommended during pregnancy?
A. At 12 weeks
B. After 28 weeks
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,C. After 20 weeks
Answer: B
Explanation: NSTs are usually conducted after 28 weeks to ensure fetal heart rate can respond
to movements, crucial for assessing fetal health.
Q5. What does a biophysical profile assess?
A. Fetal heart rate only
B. Fetal movement, muscle tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid
C. Maternal health conditions
Answer: B
Explanation: A biophysical profile evaluates fetal well-being by assessing movement, muscle
tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid level via ultrasound.
Q6. In antepartum testing, which examination involves measuring the depth of amniotic fluid
pockets using ultrasound?
A. Breast Stimulation Stress Test
B. Biophysical Profile
C. Amniotic Fluid Index (AFI)
Answer: C
Explanation: The Amniotic Fluid Index (AFI) determines amniotic fluid levels via ultrasound,
crucial for assessing fetal health and the potential need for early delivery.
Q7. During a routine delivery, a neonate exhibits vigorous crying at birth with good muscle
tone and respiratory effort. However, upon cord blood gas analysis, the pH is 7.10 and the
base excess is -10 mmol/L. What is the appropriate action?
A. Initiate immediate cooling therapy
B. Perform a sepsis workup
C. Monitor closely for neurological symptoms
Answer: C
Explanation: Despite the abnormal cord gas values, the neonate's clinical presentation suggests
normal transitional physiology.
Q8. A 42-year-old woman is in her 30th week of pregnancy. Which intervention should the
nurse prioritize?
Ask for various Exams or Study materials from ()
,A. Administering an influenza vaccine
B. Recommending increased caffeine intake
C. Encouraging high-impact exercises
Answer: A
Explanation: Influenza vaccination is crucial for pregnant women over 35 to prevent
complications.
Q9. A 32-year-old pregnant woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. What intervention
should the nurse prioritize?
A. Initiating insulin therapy
B. Recommending a high-carbohydrate diet
C. Encouraging regular exercise
Answer: C
Explanation: Exercise is crucial in managing gestational diabetes as it helps regulate blood
glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity.
Q10. A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents with sudden onset of severe
headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg, and
proteinuria is detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
Answer: C
Explanation: Sudden onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks' gestation is indicative
of preeclampsia.
Q11. In a prenatal check-up, a woman with oligohydramnios shows signs of intrauterine
growth restriction. What condition should be suspected in the fetus?
A. Pulmonary hypoplasia
B. Congenital heart defect
C. Gestational diabetes
Answer: A
Ask for various Exams or Study materials from ()
, Explanation: Oligohydramnios, especially with intrauterine growth restriction, increases the risk
of pulmonary hypoplasia due to insufficient amniotic fluid for proper lung development.
Q12. Which factor increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) during labor and
delivery?
A. Vaginal delivery without tearing
B. Administration of tocolytics
C. Absence of previous PPH history
Answer: B
Explanation: Administering tocolytics to halt labor increases PPH risk, as it can lead to uterine
atony, a major cause of excessive bleeding.
Q13. What is the primary concern regarding the health of a premature baby?
A. Anemia
B. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
Answer: B
Explanation: Bronchopulmonary dysplasia, characterized by underdeveloped lungs, is a
common health concern in premature infants.
Q14. Which physiological characteristic of the respiratory system is commonly observed in
full-term newborns shortly after birth?
A. Respiratory rate of 20-30l/min
B. Fluctuating respiratory rate of 40-60l/min
C. Stable respiratory rate of 70-80l/min
Answer: B
Explanation: Full-term newborns often exhibit a fluctuating respiratory rate of 40-60l/min, with
occasional irregularities that normalize within the first few hours after birth.
Q15. Which factor is not associated with an increased risk of post-term pregnancy?
A. Primiparity
B. Female fetus
C. Low maternal BMI
Ask for various Exams or Study materials from ()