RNFA Course 1 Period QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2024
( A+ GRADED 100% VERIFIED)Brand New
1. Select from the following a medication that is used for PONV and has the
potential to prolong the QT interval a) droperidol
b) dolasteran
c) prochlorperazine
d) scopolamine patch: A) droperidol
2. Allergic reactions to latex range from skin disease to asthma and anaphylaxis
that can result in chronic illness, disability, career loss, hardship and death.
What types of signs and symptoms would be indicative of an allergic contact
dermatitis response to contact with natural rubber latex: Pruritus, edema,
erythema, and vesicles that develop 6 to 48 hours after exposure
3. The strength layer of the skin is found in the: Dermis
4. Two monitoring techniques used by anesthesia that have improved morbidity
and mortality include:: Pulse ox and capnography
5. Jacob Sutzkever is a 62 year old man who had surgery 6 days ago for a
ruptured diverticulum. He is back in the OR for a debridement and washout.
Jacobs fever has subsided and the drainage is clear. The surgeon will continue
with wet to dry dressings and schedules Jacob to return to the OR in 3 days
for:: Delayed primary sutured closure
6. Which of the following is not an advantage to the use of silk suture: Memory
7. The stapler designed to close the end of a hollow organ is called: EEA
8. Which anesthetic agent could not be given if an IV-only anesthesia plan was
employed: Desflurane
9. The process of decontamination should initially begin at what point?:
Completion of the surgical procedure
10. Which statement about surgical dressings is true
A) surgical dressing maintain tension on the suture line to prevent dehiscence B)
surgical dressings cushion and protect the wound from trauma and gross
contamination and absorb drainage
C) surgical dressings protect surrounding drapes, linen and clothing from
contamination
D) surgical dressings cover the wound to maintain moisture to promote
granulation: B) surgical dressings cushion and protect the wound from trauma and gross
contamination and absorb drainage
11. Risk factors for PONV should be assessed preoperatively. Which of the
following is a risk factor for PONV.: Female gender
1/5
, 12. Guidelines from the WHO focus on which of the following in the prevention of
SSI's?: Use of antibiotics
13. The death of microorganisms occurs in stream sterilization as a result of which
process?: Denaturation and coagulation of enzyme proteins
14. Laparoscopic procedures that emerge toy convert to open procedures place the
patient at risk for unintentional retained foreign objects (RFO). What new and
evolving risk reduction strategy could prevent RFO's and frustrating, time
consuming miscount adventures at the end of these procedures?: Replacing or
tagging sponges and laparotomy instruments with RFID chips
15. The name of the fascia that separates the anterior rectum from the vagina in
females is called the:: Rectovaginal fascia
16. The area between the surgeon and the scrub person designed for passing sharps
safely is referred to as the:: Neutral zone
17. The new general surgery fellow placed the three rep at ports for the
laparoscopic appendectomy. The procedure was completed without incident;
however, on postoperative day 1, the patient demonstrated signs and symptoms
of sepsis. What might have been the unusual occurrence that could have
resulted in patient sepsis.: Inadvertent trocar puncture through the bowel on
insertion.
18. The patient stated that her mouth, lips, and tongue were numb and prickly
feeling and she had a metallic taste after receiving local anesthesia for a
procedure. The anesthesia provider suspected that the patient had————and
responded by———-.: A toxic overdose of local anesthetic; monitoring and
increasing the flow rate of IV saline
19. Which of the following medications is a specific depolarizinf muscle relaxant
than can produce generalized fasciculations?: Succinylcholine
20. Sara was positioned, prepped and draped following general endotracheal
anesthesia induction. The team assembled around Sara and the sterile field to
perform the time out as described in the WHO surgical checklist. Successful
employment of the time out can only be ensured when:: The entire team stops and
focuses attention together.
21. Which member of the surgical team can be held liable in litigation for retained
foreign bodies: The entire team
22. Which statement best explains the mechanism of action of general anesthetic
agents?: Inhibition of synaptic transmission of nerve impulses
23. Sherry Ames is an endoscopy nurse in a busy free standing ambulatory surgery
center. She is an RN with additional documented competency in providing an
anesthesia modality to healthy patients having screening colonoscopies,
bronchoscopies and upper GI endoscopes. This modality will allow this patient
2/5
( A+ GRADED 100% VERIFIED)Brand New
1. Select from the following a medication that is used for PONV and has the
potential to prolong the QT interval a) droperidol
b) dolasteran
c) prochlorperazine
d) scopolamine patch: A) droperidol
2. Allergic reactions to latex range from skin disease to asthma and anaphylaxis
that can result in chronic illness, disability, career loss, hardship and death.
What types of signs and symptoms would be indicative of an allergic contact
dermatitis response to contact with natural rubber latex: Pruritus, edema,
erythema, and vesicles that develop 6 to 48 hours after exposure
3. The strength layer of the skin is found in the: Dermis
4. Two monitoring techniques used by anesthesia that have improved morbidity
and mortality include:: Pulse ox and capnography
5. Jacob Sutzkever is a 62 year old man who had surgery 6 days ago for a
ruptured diverticulum. He is back in the OR for a debridement and washout.
Jacobs fever has subsided and the drainage is clear. The surgeon will continue
with wet to dry dressings and schedules Jacob to return to the OR in 3 days
for:: Delayed primary sutured closure
6. Which of the following is not an advantage to the use of silk suture: Memory
7. The stapler designed to close the end of a hollow organ is called: EEA
8. Which anesthetic agent could not be given if an IV-only anesthesia plan was
employed: Desflurane
9. The process of decontamination should initially begin at what point?:
Completion of the surgical procedure
10. Which statement about surgical dressings is true
A) surgical dressing maintain tension on the suture line to prevent dehiscence B)
surgical dressings cushion and protect the wound from trauma and gross
contamination and absorb drainage
C) surgical dressings protect surrounding drapes, linen and clothing from
contamination
D) surgical dressings cover the wound to maintain moisture to promote
granulation: B) surgical dressings cushion and protect the wound from trauma and gross
contamination and absorb drainage
11. Risk factors for PONV should be assessed preoperatively. Which of the
following is a risk factor for PONV.: Female gender
1/5
, 12. Guidelines from the WHO focus on which of the following in the prevention of
SSI's?: Use of antibiotics
13. The death of microorganisms occurs in stream sterilization as a result of which
process?: Denaturation and coagulation of enzyme proteins
14. Laparoscopic procedures that emerge toy convert to open procedures place the
patient at risk for unintentional retained foreign objects (RFO). What new and
evolving risk reduction strategy could prevent RFO's and frustrating, time
consuming miscount adventures at the end of these procedures?: Replacing or
tagging sponges and laparotomy instruments with RFID chips
15. The name of the fascia that separates the anterior rectum from the vagina in
females is called the:: Rectovaginal fascia
16. The area between the surgeon and the scrub person designed for passing sharps
safely is referred to as the:: Neutral zone
17. The new general surgery fellow placed the three rep at ports for the
laparoscopic appendectomy. The procedure was completed without incident;
however, on postoperative day 1, the patient demonstrated signs and symptoms
of sepsis. What might have been the unusual occurrence that could have
resulted in patient sepsis.: Inadvertent trocar puncture through the bowel on
insertion.
18. The patient stated that her mouth, lips, and tongue were numb and prickly
feeling and she had a metallic taste after receiving local anesthesia for a
procedure. The anesthesia provider suspected that the patient had————and
responded by———-.: A toxic overdose of local anesthetic; monitoring and
increasing the flow rate of IV saline
19. Which of the following medications is a specific depolarizinf muscle relaxant
than can produce generalized fasciculations?: Succinylcholine
20. Sara was positioned, prepped and draped following general endotracheal
anesthesia induction. The team assembled around Sara and the sterile field to
perform the time out as described in the WHO surgical checklist. Successful
employment of the time out can only be ensured when:: The entire team stops and
focuses attention together.
21. Which member of the surgical team can be held liable in litigation for retained
foreign bodies: The entire team
22. Which statement best explains the mechanism of action of general anesthetic
agents?: Inhibition of synaptic transmission of nerve impulses
23. Sherry Ames is an endoscopy nurse in a busy free standing ambulatory surgery
center. She is an RN with additional documented competency in providing an
anesthesia modality to healthy patients having screening colonoscopies,
bronchoscopies and upper GI endoscopes. This modality will allow this patient
2/5
