Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? ** Answ** Delays the onset of drag
divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speeds
In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the
ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? ** Answ** when
operating at any airspeed of Vmc or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip
What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank
but increasing airspeed? ** Answ** Rate will decrease and radius will increase
If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing HUNDA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at
LAX, what action should the pilot take? ** Answ** Continue to the MAP, and execute the
missed approach as indicated
What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating
Conditions BE-24? ** Answ** 10.0 minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM
What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating
Conditions BE-21? ** Answ** 2,300 ft/min
What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-1? ** Answ** 25,000 pounds
All 14 CFR part 139 airports must report ** Answ** declared distances for each runway
Estimate the total fuel required to be on the aircraft, prior to taxi at Tucson Intl. (Use 13°E for
problem magnetic variation.) ** Answ** 2,327 pounds
,What is the specific range in nautical air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to start of
descent using .78 Mach? ** Answ** 48.9 NAM/1000
What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with un-supercharged engines?
** Answ** Decreases with altitude
Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as ** Answ** circles or polygons around "HS
and a number"
As you call for taxi instructions, the key words to understand are ** Answ** "hold short of"
or "cross"
You received these ATC taxi instructions: "Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of
Runway 25L." Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the
airport. Your taxi route ** Answ** requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima
As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB) (figures 241 and 242),
you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides
of your pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D,
cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you ** Answ**
exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2
Upon landing, spoilers ** Answ** function by increasing tire to ground friction.
Arriving over the runway 10 knots over Vref would add approximately how many feet to the dry
landing distance? ** Answ** 2,800 feet
What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the
electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots? **
Answ** 555 ft/min
,You arrive at the initial fix for the LPV approach into XYZ. The preflight briefer issued you an
unreliable advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signals
and full GPS service is available. You ** Answ** know you can fly the approach down to
LPV minimums
You are cleared to HNL (figure 251) and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach.
Assuming you have received the training, you ** Answ** know your FMS/GPS must have
GPS and radius-to-fix capability
Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055° radial of the station and
heading away from the station? ** Answ** 2
When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? **
Answ** When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right
During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope indication with
a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70? ** Answ**
585 feet per minute
On the airway J220 (BUF R-158) SE of Buffalo, the MAA is 39,000 feet. What is the MAA on
J547 between BUF and PMM (lower panel)? ** Answ** 45,000 feet
The facility (Kankakee) that is located 9 miles NE of Chicago Midway or 27 miles SSE of
Northbrook (OBK) is a/an ** Answ** Flight Service, Remote Communications Outlet
Which frequency should be selected to check airport conditions and weather prior to departure at
DFW Intl? ** Answ** 117.0 MHz
Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed? ** Answ** Vc
, What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and
can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? **
Answ** Clearway
Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a
pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask? **
Answ** FL 350
Each life preserver must be equipped with ** Answ** an approved survivor locator light
During which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be
continuously operated? ** Answ** From the use of the checklist before the flight to
completion of the final check at the end of the flight
Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember interphone
system? ** Answ** Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot
seat, of more than 19 seats
Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger
compartment? ** Answ** It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants
An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part
135 operator must comply with ** Answ** regulations of the foreign country
Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated
over water? ** Answ** Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will
allow them to reach land in case of engine failure
A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in
command, may take the autopilot check ** Answ** concurrently with the instrument
proficiency check, but at 12 month intervals