arrt registry review
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Arrt Registry Review Questions With Correct And Accurate Answers
2024 ( A+ Graded 100% Verified)
1. The ASRT document that defines the radiographer's role is the: practice
standards
2. Occurences that can keep a radiography that can keep a radiography student
from meeting ARRT certification requirements include: being suspended from a
radiography program and being dismissed/expelled from a radiography program
3. Violations of the ARRT rules of ethics include: accepting responsibility to
perform a function outside of the scope of practice
4. Which organization has the authority to impose professional sanction on a
radiographer: ARRT
5. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized
individuals may be found liable for: defamation
6. Patient's rights include the following: the right to refuse treatment and the right
to confidentiality
7. A radiographer who performs an x-ray examination on a patient without the
patient's consent , or after the patient has refused the examination, may be liable
for: battery
8. An individual's legal document identifying his or her specific wishes regarding
medical care to be provided in the event that he or she is unable to make or
communicate decisions is called: advanced health care directive
9. The legislation that guarantees confidentiality of patient information is:
HIPAA
10. If a patient lacks decision making capacity, his or her rights can be exercised
on his or her behalf by: designated surrogate or designated proxy
11. Which of the following communicates messages to the patient: facial
expression, eye contact, personal appearance
12. examples of nonverbal communication include: appearance, eye contact, touch
13. successful, effective communication includes proficiency in the following
skills: writing, speech, observation
14. which of the following is the first step to be taken in the performance of a
radiographic examination: verify patient identity
15. what is an acceptable resource for non-English speaking patients: automated
language lines, special dual headset phones, a certified interpreter
16. a patient aged 55 years is most accurately described as: middle adult
, . registry review
arrt
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17. increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin, and atrophy of fat pads and sweat
glands are all important considerations when working with which group of patients:
geriatric
18 A radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone
physical changes that include loss of: muscle mass and bone calcium
19. The belief that one's own cultural ways are superior to any other is termed:
ethnocentrism
20. misunderstandings between cultures can happen as a result of: looking directly
into someone's eyes, the use of certain gestures, standing too close while speaking to
another
21. which of the following is/are symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply:
diaphoresis, cyanosis, and retracted intercostal spaces
22. a patient's feeling of spinning, or the room spinning around him, is called:
vertigo
23. types of NG/NI/NE tubes include: sengstaken-Blakemore and miller-abbott
24. a patient's iv container should be hung: 18-24 inches above the vein
25. what are good body mechanics during patient lifting/moving: stand with feet 12
inches apart with one foot slightly in front, the body's center of gravity should be
positioned over its base of support, the back should be kept straight; avoid twisting
26. partial restriction of blood supplied to the brain as a result of a temporary
or mild occlusion of a cerebral vessel is referred to as: TIA (transient ischemic
attack)
27. blood pressure is measured in units of: millimeters of mercury (mm Hg)
28. which blood vessels are best suited for determination of pulse rate: superficial
arteries
29. medical equipment that might contain latex include: catheters, endotracheal
tubes, and syringes
30. when a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and
objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that: the
patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position
31. pathogens are: sometimes harmful, capable of producing disease
32. diseases that can be transmitted by direct contact include: skin infections and
MDROs
33. in which of the following conditions is protective, or reverse, isolation indicated:
transplant recipient, chemotherapy recipient, and leukemia
34. which of the following is/are means of transmission of microorganisms: vector,
fomite, and airborne
35. what is the single most effective means of controlling the spread of infectious
microorganisms: handwashing
, . registry review
arrt
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_4zz4gq
36. what is the name of the practice the serves to retard the growth of pathogenic
bacteria: antisepsis
37 which of the following diseases require(s) airborne precaution: TB and varicella
38. the radiographer must perform the following procedures before entering an
isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit: wear a gown, gloves, and possibly a mask
39. lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick
bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of
transmission of an infection by: a vector
40. which of the following can be transmitted via infected blood: AIDS and HBV
41. equipment that might be needed for intravenous drug/contrast medium
administration include(s): heparin lock, needles, and infusion set
42. body reaction to a sensitizing agent can occur as a result of: absorption, injection,
and ingestion
43. example(s) of negative contrast agents include: air
44. what happens to the size of the needle as the gauge increases: is gets smaller
45. What should be the angle formed between the needle and the skin surface for
an intravenous injection?: 15 degrees
46. parenteral administration of drugs may be performed: intrathecally and
intravenously
47. what is the most frequently used site for an intravenous injection of contrast
agents: antecubital vein
48. mild systemic reaction to intravenous contrast material include: nausea, metallic
taste in mouth, and flushed appearance
49. terms correctly associated with positive contrast agents include: radiopaque,
iondinated, and high atomic number
50. the usual patient preparation for a UGI examination is: NPO 8 hours before the
exam
51. the plane that passes vertically through the body dividing it into anterior and
posterior halves is termed the: midsagittal plane
52. The position of the asthenic stomach, as compared with the position of the
sthenic stomach, is more: inferior and medial
53. what is the relationship between the midsagittal and midcoronal plane:
perpendicular
54. with the patient recumbent with feet positioned at a level lower than the head,
the patient is said to be in the: fowler position
55. prior to xray examinations of the skull and cervical spine, the patient should
remove: dentures, earrings, necklaces
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_4zz4gq
Arrt Registry Review Questions With Correct And Accurate Answers
2024 ( A+ Graded 100% Verified)
1. The ASRT document that defines the radiographer's role is the: practice
standards
2. Occurences that can keep a radiography that can keep a radiography student
from meeting ARRT certification requirements include: being suspended from a
radiography program and being dismissed/expelled from a radiography program
3. Violations of the ARRT rules of ethics include: accepting responsibility to
perform a function outside of the scope of practice
4. Which organization has the authority to impose professional sanction on a
radiographer: ARRT
5. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized
individuals may be found liable for: defamation
6. Patient's rights include the following: the right to refuse treatment and the right
to confidentiality
7. A radiographer who performs an x-ray examination on a patient without the
patient's consent , or after the patient has refused the examination, may be liable
for: battery
8. An individual's legal document identifying his or her specific wishes regarding
medical care to be provided in the event that he or she is unable to make or
communicate decisions is called: advanced health care directive
9. The legislation that guarantees confidentiality of patient information is:
HIPAA
10. If a patient lacks decision making capacity, his or her rights can be exercised
on his or her behalf by: designated surrogate or designated proxy
11. Which of the following communicates messages to the patient: facial
expression, eye contact, personal appearance
12. examples of nonverbal communication include: appearance, eye contact, touch
13. successful, effective communication includes proficiency in the following
skills: writing, speech, observation
14. which of the following is the first step to be taken in the performance of a
radiographic examination: verify patient identity
15. what is an acceptable resource for non-English speaking patients: automated
language lines, special dual headset phones, a certified interpreter
16. a patient aged 55 years is most accurately described as: middle adult
, . registry review
arrt
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_4zz4gq
17. increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin, and atrophy of fat pads and sweat
glands are all important considerations when working with which group of patients:
geriatric
18 A radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone
physical changes that include loss of: muscle mass and bone calcium
19. The belief that one's own cultural ways are superior to any other is termed:
ethnocentrism
20. misunderstandings between cultures can happen as a result of: looking directly
into someone's eyes, the use of certain gestures, standing too close while speaking to
another
21. which of the following is/are symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply:
diaphoresis, cyanosis, and retracted intercostal spaces
22. a patient's feeling of spinning, or the room spinning around him, is called:
vertigo
23. types of NG/NI/NE tubes include: sengstaken-Blakemore and miller-abbott
24. a patient's iv container should be hung: 18-24 inches above the vein
25. what are good body mechanics during patient lifting/moving: stand with feet 12
inches apart with one foot slightly in front, the body's center of gravity should be
positioned over its base of support, the back should be kept straight; avoid twisting
26. partial restriction of blood supplied to the brain as a result of a temporary
or mild occlusion of a cerebral vessel is referred to as: TIA (transient ischemic
attack)
27. blood pressure is measured in units of: millimeters of mercury (mm Hg)
28. which blood vessels are best suited for determination of pulse rate: superficial
arteries
29. medical equipment that might contain latex include: catheters, endotracheal
tubes, and syringes
30. when a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and
objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that: the
patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position
31. pathogens are: sometimes harmful, capable of producing disease
32. diseases that can be transmitted by direct contact include: skin infections and
MDROs
33. in which of the following conditions is protective, or reverse, isolation indicated:
transplant recipient, chemotherapy recipient, and leukemia
34. which of the following is/are means of transmission of microorganisms: vector,
fomite, and airborne
35. what is the single most effective means of controlling the spread of infectious
microorganisms: handwashing
, . registry review
arrt
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_4zz4gq
36. what is the name of the practice the serves to retard the growth of pathogenic
bacteria: antisepsis
37 which of the following diseases require(s) airborne precaution: TB and varicella
38. the radiographer must perform the following procedures before entering an
isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit: wear a gown, gloves, and possibly a mask
39. lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick
bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of
transmission of an infection by: a vector
40. which of the following can be transmitted via infected blood: AIDS and HBV
41. equipment that might be needed for intravenous drug/contrast medium
administration include(s): heparin lock, needles, and infusion set
42. body reaction to a sensitizing agent can occur as a result of: absorption, injection,
and ingestion
43. example(s) of negative contrast agents include: air
44. what happens to the size of the needle as the gauge increases: is gets smaller
45. What should be the angle formed between the needle and the skin surface for
an intravenous injection?: 15 degrees
46. parenteral administration of drugs may be performed: intrathecally and
intravenously
47. what is the most frequently used site for an intravenous injection of contrast
agents: antecubital vein
48. mild systemic reaction to intravenous contrast material include: nausea, metallic
taste in mouth, and flushed appearance
49. terms correctly associated with positive contrast agents include: radiopaque,
iondinated, and high atomic number
50. the usual patient preparation for a UGI examination is: NPO 8 hours before the
exam
51. the plane that passes vertically through the body dividing it into anterior and
posterior halves is termed the: midsagittal plane
52. The position of the asthenic stomach, as compared with the position of the
sthenic stomach, is more: inferior and medial
53. what is the relationship between the midsagittal and midcoronal plane:
perpendicular
54. with the patient recumbent with feet positioned at a level lower than the head,
the patient is said to be in the: fowler position
55. prior to xray examinations of the skull and cervical spine, the patient should
remove: dentures, earrings, necklaces
