A pregnant woman's amniotic membranes burst. A prolapsed umbilical cord is
suspected. Which intervention would be the highest priority?
a. Place the woman in the knee-chest posture.
b. Cover the chord with sterile gauze soaked in saline.
c. preparing the mother for a cesarean birth.
d. Starting oxygen with a face mask - ANSWER A.
The woman is helped into a posture (e.g., modified Sims position,
Trendelenburg position, or knee-chest position, on all fours) where gravity
maintains the presenting section off the cord. Although wrapping the cord with
sterile gauze soaked in saline, preparing the lady for a cesarean, and
commencing oxygen via face mark are all reasonable nursing measures in the
event of a prolapsed cord, situating the mother to reduce cord compression
should be the main concern.
Nurses should be informed of the induction of labor:
a. Can be accomplished using both external and internal version approaches.
b. This is also known as a trial of labor (TOL).
c. Is generally always done for medicinal purposes.
d. A Bishop score determines viability. - Answer D.
,A high score (above 6) indicates a successful labor induction because the cervix
has ripened or softened in preparation for labor. A physician puts the fetus into
a more favorable position for an easier or safer birth. A labor trial is an
observation of a woman and her pregnancy during several hours of active labor
in order to determine the safety of vaginal birth. Two-thirds of induced labors
are elective and not performed for medical reasons.
In terms of labor augmentation, the nurse should be aware of the following:
a. Is part of active labor management, which is implemented when the labor
process is unsatisfactory.
b. When oxytocin and amniotomy fail to work, more invasive procedures are
used.
c. Is a modern managerial word that conceals the negative implications of
forceps-assisted delivery.
d. Uses vacuum cups. - The answer is A.
Augmentation is an active labor management technique that induces uterine
contractions once labor has begun but is not progressing properly. Amniotomy
and oxytocin infusion, as well as less invasive procedures, are used for
augmentation. Forceps-assisted and vacuum-assisted births are suited at the
conclusion of labor and are not part of augmentation.
The nurse working in a birthing situation knows that the lady most at risk of
uterine rupture is:
a. A third-trimester pregnancy with two low-segment transverse cesarean
deliveries.
b. A gravida 2 had a low-segment vertical incision to deliver a 10-pound child.
c. A gravida 5 with two vaginal and two cesarean births.
, d. A fourth-trimester pregnant woman who has only had cesarean deliveries. -
Answer D.
The risk of uterine rupture increases for patients who have had several previous
deliveries but no vaginal births. The risk of uterine rupture increases with the
number of past uterine incisions. Low-segment transverse cesarean scars do not
increase the patient's risk of uterine rupture.
Following an amniotomy, the nurse monitors a pregnant client. Which
observation would indicate the possibility of umbilical cord compression?
A. The fetal heart rate (FHR) indicates tachycardia.
B. The client's vaginal leakage has a nasty scent.
C. The customer commonly has maternal chills.
D. The fetal heart rate (FHR) exhibits varying slowing. - Answer D.
After an amniotomy to artificially rupture a pregnant client's membranes, the
nurse should closely monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR). If the FHR decreases or
decelerates, it indicates that the client's umbilical cord is compressed, and the
nurse should immediately notify the primary health care provider of the client's
condition.
A client had previously undergone a cesarean birth. What are the parameters for
attempting a vaginal birth with a second pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. A history of postpartum bleeding.
B. A previous traditional vertical incision.
suspected. Which intervention would be the highest priority?
a. Place the woman in the knee-chest posture.
b. Cover the chord with sterile gauze soaked in saline.
c. preparing the mother for a cesarean birth.
d. Starting oxygen with a face mask - ANSWER A.
The woman is helped into a posture (e.g., modified Sims position,
Trendelenburg position, or knee-chest position, on all fours) where gravity
maintains the presenting section off the cord. Although wrapping the cord with
sterile gauze soaked in saline, preparing the lady for a cesarean, and
commencing oxygen via face mark are all reasonable nursing measures in the
event of a prolapsed cord, situating the mother to reduce cord compression
should be the main concern.
Nurses should be informed of the induction of labor:
a. Can be accomplished using both external and internal version approaches.
b. This is also known as a trial of labor (TOL).
c. Is generally always done for medicinal purposes.
d. A Bishop score determines viability. - Answer D.
,A high score (above 6) indicates a successful labor induction because the cervix
has ripened or softened in preparation for labor. A physician puts the fetus into
a more favorable position for an easier or safer birth. A labor trial is an
observation of a woman and her pregnancy during several hours of active labor
in order to determine the safety of vaginal birth. Two-thirds of induced labors
are elective and not performed for medical reasons.
In terms of labor augmentation, the nurse should be aware of the following:
a. Is part of active labor management, which is implemented when the labor
process is unsatisfactory.
b. When oxytocin and amniotomy fail to work, more invasive procedures are
used.
c. Is a modern managerial word that conceals the negative implications of
forceps-assisted delivery.
d. Uses vacuum cups. - The answer is A.
Augmentation is an active labor management technique that induces uterine
contractions once labor has begun but is not progressing properly. Amniotomy
and oxytocin infusion, as well as less invasive procedures, are used for
augmentation. Forceps-assisted and vacuum-assisted births are suited at the
conclusion of labor and are not part of augmentation.
The nurse working in a birthing situation knows that the lady most at risk of
uterine rupture is:
a. A third-trimester pregnancy with two low-segment transverse cesarean
deliveries.
b. A gravida 2 had a low-segment vertical incision to deliver a 10-pound child.
c. A gravida 5 with two vaginal and two cesarean births.
, d. A fourth-trimester pregnant woman who has only had cesarean deliveries. -
Answer D.
The risk of uterine rupture increases for patients who have had several previous
deliveries but no vaginal births. The risk of uterine rupture increases with the
number of past uterine incisions. Low-segment transverse cesarean scars do not
increase the patient's risk of uterine rupture.
Following an amniotomy, the nurse monitors a pregnant client. Which
observation would indicate the possibility of umbilical cord compression?
A. The fetal heart rate (FHR) indicates tachycardia.
B. The client's vaginal leakage has a nasty scent.
C. The customer commonly has maternal chills.
D. The fetal heart rate (FHR) exhibits varying slowing. - Answer D.
After an amniotomy to artificially rupture a pregnant client's membranes, the
nurse should closely monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR). If the FHR decreases or
decelerates, it indicates that the client's umbilical cord is compressed, and the
nurse should immediately notify the primary health care provider of the client's
condition.
A client had previously undergone a cesarean birth. What are the parameters for
attempting a vaginal birth with a second pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. A history of postpartum bleeding.
B. A previous traditional vertical incision.
