NR599 Final Exam Study Guide Questions With
Complete Solutions
Course
NR 599
1. A patient with a history of Type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic for
follow-up. The provider orders an A1c test. What does the A1c measure?
A. Short-term blood glucose levels
B. Long-term blood glucose control
C. Insulin production by the pancreas
D. Immediate glucose response to food intake
Answer: B. Long-term blood glucose control
Rationale: Hemoglobin A1c measures the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3
months, providing insight into long-term glycemic control. This test reflects how well
diabetes is managed over time.
2. A nurse is educating a patient on hypertension. Which of the following
would be an appropriate lifestyle modification to recommend?
A. Increase sodium intake
B. Decrease physical activity
C. Follow a DASH diet
D. Drink more sugary beverages
Answer: C. Follow a DASH diet
Rationale: The DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet is proven to lower
blood pressure. It emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and low-fat dairy, and limits
saturated fat and sugar.
,3. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for the treatment of
heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A. Metformin
B. Lisinopril
C. Aspirin
D. Albuterol
Answer: B. Lisinopril
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used in the management of heart failure
with reduced ejection fraction because it helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevents
further damage.
4. A patient with a respiratory infection is prescribed an antibiotic. What is
the primary purpose of antibiotic stewardship?
A. To reduce the duration of treatment
B. To decrease antibiotic resistance
C. To increase medication costs
D. To reduce the side effects of medications
Answer: B. To decrease antibiotic resistance
Rationale: Antibiotic stewardship promotes the appropriate use of antibiotics to prevent the
development of resistant organisms and ensure that antibiotics remain effective for future use.
5. Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with chronic
kidney disease (CKD)?
A. Hypertension
B. Asthma
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: A. Hypertension
,Rationale: Hypertension is both a cause and consequence of CKD. Poorly controlled blood
pressure damages the kidneys over time, and CKD can exacerbate high blood pressure.
6. In evidence-based practice (EBP), what is the primary purpose of using
randomized controlled trials (RCTs)?
A. To observe natural disease progression
B. To eliminate bias and determine causality
C. To compare treatment costs
D. To explore patient preferences
Answer: B. To eliminate bias and determine causality
Rationale: RCTs are considered the gold standard in research as they randomly assign
participants to different groups, helping to eliminate bias and establish cause-and-effect
relationships between interventions and outcomes.
7. A patient on warfarin therapy presents with an INR of 5.5. What is the
nurse's best action?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Continue the medication as ordered
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Encourage the patient to eat more leafy greens
Answer: C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Rationale: An INR of 5.5 indicates a high risk for bleeding, as it is above the therapeutic
range for patients on warfarin. The provider should be notified to adjust the dose or initiate
other interventions.
8. What is the primary goal of palliative care?
A. To cure terminal diseases
B. To prolong life regardless of quality
, C. To relieve symptoms and improve quality of life
D. To expedite the end of life
Answer: C. To relieve symptoms and improve quality of life
Rationale: Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious
illnesses by addressing physical, emotional, and spiritual needs, rather than focusing on
curative treatments.
9. Which is a key symptom of major depressive disorder (MDD)?
A. Euphoria
B. Hyperactivity
C. Persistent sadness or loss of interest
D. Hallucinations
Answer: C. Persistent sadness or loss of interest
Rationale: Major depressive disorder is characterized by a persistent feeling of sadness or
loss of interest in activities that were once pleasurable, affecting the patient’s daily
functioning.
10. A nurse is reviewing the use of beta-blockers in patients with
hypertension. Which of the following is a known side effect of beta-blockers?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Increased respiratory rate
D. Increased urine output
Answer: B. Bradycardia
Rationale: Beta-blockers work by decreasing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. A
common side effect is bradycardia (a slower than normal heart rate).
11. Which of the following is an early sign of hypoglycemia in a diabetic
patient?
Complete Solutions
Course
NR 599
1. A patient with a history of Type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic for
follow-up. The provider orders an A1c test. What does the A1c measure?
A. Short-term blood glucose levels
B. Long-term blood glucose control
C. Insulin production by the pancreas
D. Immediate glucose response to food intake
Answer: B. Long-term blood glucose control
Rationale: Hemoglobin A1c measures the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3
months, providing insight into long-term glycemic control. This test reflects how well
diabetes is managed over time.
2. A nurse is educating a patient on hypertension. Which of the following
would be an appropriate lifestyle modification to recommend?
A. Increase sodium intake
B. Decrease physical activity
C. Follow a DASH diet
D. Drink more sugary beverages
Answer: C. Follow a DASH diet
Rationale: The DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet is proven to lower
blood pressure. It emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and low-fat dairy, and limits
saturated fat and sugar.
,3. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for the treatment of
heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A. Metformin
B. Lisinopril
C. Aspirin
D. Albuterol
Answer: B. Lisinopril
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used in the management of heart failure
with reduced ejection fraction because it helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevents
further damage.
4. A patient with a respiratory infection is prescribed an antibiotic. What is
the primary purpose of antibiotic stewardship?
A. To reduce the duration of treatment
B. To decrease antibiotic resistance
C. To increase medication costs
D. To reduce the side effects of medications
Answer: B. To decrease antibiotic resistance
Rationale: Antibiotic stewardship promotes the appropriate use of antibiotics to prevent the
development of resistant organisms and ensure that antibiotics remain effective for future use.
5. Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with chronic
kidney disease (CKD)?
A. Hypertension
B. Asthma
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: A. Hypertension
,Rationale: Hypertension is both a cause and consequence of CKD. Poorly controlled blood
pressure damages the kidneys over time, and CKD can exacerbate high blood pressure.
6. In evidence-based practice (EBP), what is the primary purpose of using
randomized controlled trials (RCTs)?
A. To observe natural disease progression
B. To eliminate bias and determine causality
C. To compare treatment costs
D. To explore patient preferences
Answer: B. To eliminate bias and determine causality
Rationale: RCTs are considered the gold standard in research as they randomly assign
participants to different groups, helping to eliminate bias and establish cause-and-effect
relationships between interventions and outcomes.
7. A patient on warfarin therapy presents with an INR of 5.5. What is the
nurse's best action?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Continue the medication as ordered
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Encourage the patient to eat more leafy greens
Answer: C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Rationale: An INR of 5.5 indicates a high risk for bleeding, as it is above the therapeutic
range for patients on warfarin. The provider should be notified to adjust the dose or initiate
other interventions.
8. What is the primary goal of palliative care?
A. To cure terminal diseases
B. To prolong life regardless of quality
, C. To relieve symptoms and improve quality of life
D. To expedite the end of life
Answer: C. To relieve symptoms and improve quality of life
Rationale: Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious
illnesses by addressing physical, emotional, and spiritual needs, rather than focusing on
curative treatments.
9. Which is a key symptom of major depressive disorder (MDD)?
A. Euphoria
B. Hyperactivity
C. Persistent sadness or loss of interest
D. Hallucinations
Answer: C. Persistent sadness or loss of interest
Rationale: Major depressive disorder is characterized by a persistent feeling of sadness or
loss of interest in activities that were once pleasurable, affecting the patient’s daily
functioning.
10. A nurse is reviewing the use of beta-blockers in patients with
hypertension. Which of the following is a known side effect of beta-blockers?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Increased respiratory rate
D. Increased urine output
Answer: B. Bradycardia
Rationale: Beta-blockers work by decreasing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. A
common side effect is bradycardia (a slower than normal heart rate).
11. Which of the following is an early sign of hypoglycemia in a diabetic
patient?
