South University Nursing NSG 5002 Final Exam(Latest, 2020) (Verified Answers by Top Expert with 500 Reviews, Download it to Score A)

This is the Latest version in STUVIA. NSG 5002 Final Exam / NSG5002 Final Exam: South University South University Nursing NSG 5002 Final Exam/ South University Nursing NSG5002 Final Exam Question 1 Encouragement of patients to take effective actions in their own healthcare refers to the concept of: : a) Physician or provider-driven care b) Family care givers c) Self-management support d) Interprofessional support Question 2 Population disease management is a term used to describe: Question 7 options: a) Low prevalence specific diseases b) High prevalence specific diseases c) High specificity disease states d) Low specificity diseases states Question 3 Changes in Medicare are a method the government uses to make changes to reimbursement schedules for healthcare. Currently, Medicare reimburses nurse practitioners for all services, even those deemed to be exclusive to nursing? Question 8 options: a) True b) False Question 4 Medicare covers inpatient hospital services under which part of the Medicare insurance? Question 9 options: a) Part B b) Part D c) Part C d) Part A Question 5 Medicare hospital insurance (Part A) is funded through what system? Question 10 options: a) State income taxes b) Federal payroll taxes c) Federal income taxes d) Interest from investments Question 6 As patients that entrust our care to another individual, we always expect honesty to avoid leading us down a deceptive pathway in our healthcare decisions. Adherence to which principle compels providers to be truthful? Question 7 options: a) Fidelity b) Veracity c) Self-reflection d) Finance Question 8 What purpose does the principle of fidelity serve in the provider/patient relationship? Question 2 options: a) Ensures that patients receive whatever they want b) Maintains costs in the healthcare arena c) Obligates the provider to a one-on-one relationship with the individual d) Ensures that providers honor their commitments to the patient Question 9 We all know that collaboration is integral to becoming a successful nurse practitioner. Among collaborations, however, only one can be considered as the most important. While each example below is important, which is the most important collaboration? The one that occurs: Question 3 options: a) Between the patient and the nurse practitioner b) Between the patient and their family c) Between two healthcare providers about a single patient d) Between the nurse practitioner and their physician mentor Question 4 Chronic, non-communicable diseases account for disproportionate costs to the healthcare system. According to the World Health Organization, what percent of preventable deaths and disabilities occur in the Americas related to chronic non-communicable diseases? Question 4 options: a) 80%-90% b) 10%-15% c) 35%-45% d) 60%-70% Question 5 Improvements in the delivery and management of healthcare are necessary if we are to improve the overall health of this nation’s population. Which of the following are identified in your readings as strategic in the movement to improve the healthcare system? Question 5 options: a) Population management and healthcare practice b) Monetary savings and limited disruption in healthcare delivery c) President and Congress d) Socialized medicine and governmental controls Question 11 Medicaid is mandated to be provided by each state through federal codes. Each state must offer Medicaid exactly as the federal government prescribes. Question 11 options: a) True b) False Question 12 Eligibility for Medicaid includes the following: Question 12 options: a) Very young and elderly only b) Children and women regardless of income c) Elderly, children and women living in poverty d) Everyone unemployed Question 13 Narrowed coronary arteries or plague rupture within the arteries of the coronary system may directly cause which condition? Question 13 options: a) Diabetes b) Coronary artery disease c) Venous Statis d) Hypertension Question 14 What happens to coronary flow related to CAD? Question 14 options: a) Hyper profusion of the myocardium b) Hypo profusion of the myocardium c) Functional systolic pressures d) Cerebral vascular infarction Question 15 In CAD, after both systolic and diastolic dysfunction have occurred, the typical pattern of chest pain and related EKG changes occur. During an EKG, you should expect to see ST-segment and T-wave changes that are central to demonstration of ischemia occurring relatively late in the ischemic cascade. Question 15 options: a) True b) False Question 16 What is considered the first-line initial approach to test for CAD? Question 16 options: a) EKG b) Echocardiogram c) Cardiac Catheterization d) Exercise Stress Test Question 17 What are two of the most common forms of Exercise Stress Tests used today? Question 17 options: a) Unicycle and Running in pace b) Bicycle and treadmill c) Bicycle and rowing machine d) Thallium and Dobutamine Question 18 Maintenance of an Isometric ST-segment during exercise is the response of? Question 18 options: a) A normal heart b) An abnormal heart c) CAD d) Hypo profusion Question 19 By standard criteria, how is a positive stress test defined? Question 19 options: a) Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 1mm b) Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 10mm c) Upward sloping ST-segment measured at the J point of the QRS d) Down sloping of the ST-segment at the J point of the QRS Question 20 Your patient underwent an exercise stress test for CAD. There is significant elevation of the ST-segYour patient underwent an exercise stress test for CAD. There is significant elevation of the ST-segment. What do you need to know about these changes to manage your patient’s care?Your patient underwent an exercise stress test for CAD. There is significant elevation of the ST-segment. What do you need to know about these changes to manage your patient’s care?ment. What do you need to know about these changes to manage your patient’s care? Question 20 options: a) These changes are predictive of myocardial infarction b) This patient needs to see someone more experienced in treatment of CAD c) These changes predict dire outcomes d) These changes have minimal predictive value for CAD Question 21 After completion of the exercise stress test, you would measure the ST-segment depression after the J point of the QRS. The J point is located where in relation to the QRS? Question 21 options: a) Junction between P and R b) Junction between QRS and ST segment c) After the H point d) Immediately after the P wave Question 22 What ECG changes can reduce the specificity of the ETT? Question 22 options: a) Paced rhythm and resting bundle branch block b) Exercise induced bundle branch blocks c) Paced rhythm and exercise induced bundle branch blocks d) Low voltage up sloping of the ST-segment Question 23 Why would inability to exercise reduce the specificity of the routine ETT? Question 23 options: a) Produces persistent ST-segmental changes and T-wave abnormalities b) Produces QRS changes that cannot be interpreted c) Causes ST-segment changes and P-wave abnormalities d) Will not produce any changes in ECG Question 24 The sensitivity of a routine ETT is effort dependent. What physiological changes occur during effort in the routine ETT? Question 24 options: a) Decrease in coronary blood flow b) Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure c) Rapid heart rates and coronary artery narrowing d) Increased coronary flow and increased systolic blood pressure Question 25 Specifically, when is an ETT considered to be negative? Question 25 options: a) Patient exercises to 85% of age predicted maximum heart rate without evidence of induced ischemia b) Patient exercises until tired without evidence of induced ischemia c) Patient has ST-segmental changes with down sloping of greater than 1 mm at 50% of age-predicted maximum heart rate d) Patient exercises to 20% maximum age-predicted heart rate without induced ischemia Question 26 Your mentor says that you should be prepared to know how to determine the maximum heart rate for your patient during the ETT. How is the age-predicted maximum heart rate during an ETT determined? Question 26 options: a) 120-age b) 220-age c) 65 age d) 220 age Question 27 Your patient has a maximum age-predicted heart rate of 180. During the exercise, he reaches a heart rate of 140 and then states he can no longer exercise. You see no evidence of ischemia on the ECG. This would be diagnostic for what condition? Question 27 options: a) Diagnostic for impending Myocardial Infarction b) Predictive of no CAD c) Diagnostic of laziness d) Has no diagnostic value to rule out CAD Question 28 Your patient has a maximum age-predicted heart rate of 180. During the exercise he reaches a heart rate of 140 and then states he can no longer exercise. You see evidence of ischemic changes on the ECG. This would be predictive of what condition? Question 28 options: a) Significant CAD b) Low risk of CAD c) Impending death d) Stroke Question 29 Ischemic changes on ECG during ETT is highly predictive of CAD. What is another important strong predictor of CAD that you might see during an ETT? Question 29 options: a) Exercise-induced hypotension b) Exercise-induced hypertension c) Rapid heart rate d) Slow heart rate Question 30 The leads on the ECG showing ischemic changes during or immediately after an ETT can correlate roughly to the culprit artery or arteries with significant CAD. Question 30 options: a) True b) False Question 31 What do you know regarding ischemia that is confined to only the posterior and or lateral segments of the left ventricle? Question 31 options: a) Easier to detect by ETT b) Difficult to detect by ETT c) Requires both for detection of changes by ETT d) ETT cannot be used for detection Question 32 Your practice partner just ordered an exercise echocardiography 2DE for a patient with suspected cardiovascular risk. This patient has known resting wall motion abnormalities. Why would this not be the best test to assess this patient’s cardiac risk? Question 32 options: a) Sensitivity is increased b) Sensitivity is decreased c) Specificity is increased d) Specificity is decreased Question 33 You are considering adding an adjunctive form of testing to detect wall motion abnormalities during the ETT. You select Echocardiography as the added testing. You choose this test because you know that echocardiography does what when added to a standard ETT? Question 33 options: a) Enhances sensitivity and specificity of CAD detection b) Enhances sensitivity while reducing specificity of CAD detection c) You like pretty pictures of wall motion d) Enhances specificity while not changing sensitivity of detection for CAD Question 34 On the echocardiography during the ETT you notice the following change: abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction. What do these changes suggest related to this patient? Question 34 options: a) Non-ischemic changes of the baseline ECG b) Ischemia of the myocardium c) Weak ventricular muscles d) Rise in heart rate without evidence of ischemia Question 35 Your patient cannot sit on a bicycle and has difficulties walking a treadmill with limited capacity for exercising. Still, you know that the ETT is the preferred test for CAD. You consider adding a pharmacological agent to get to maximum heart rate. What agent would be the most commonly used agent to assist in an ETT? Question 35 options: a) Aspirin b) Epinephrine c) Dobutamine d) Dopamine Question 36 Your patient is morbidly obese and cannot sit on a bicycle or walk a treadmill. She also has marked and severe emphysema. You need to make an assessment of the risk of significant CAD and your patient’s family says that their relative had their diagnosis based on an ultrasound echocardiography. What facts would influence your decision regarding the family request for echo assessment? Question 36 options: a) Sensitivity would be increased because of lung disease b) Specificity would be increased because of obesity c) Sensitivity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease d) Specificity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease Question 37 You are in the clinic with your mentor observing the Echocardiogram exercise test of a 45-year old male that has been experiencing slight chest pressure almost daily during exercise. While observing your patient, your mentor points out that the left ventricle wall is thinning and there is some hyperkinesias of the ventricular wall. From your time in the clinic, you know that this test will be considered to be what type of result? Question 37 options: a) Positive b) Negative c) Non-readable d) Impossible Question 38 Of the answers below, which would be included in defining a positive Exercise Echocardiogram? Question 38 options: a) Induced decrease in regional wall motion b) Increase in wall thickening c) Regional hypokensis of ventricular muscles walls d) Death two days after test Question 39 What three conditions definitely alter the results of echocardiography in determining CAD? Question 39 options: a) Diabetes, kidney disease and tooth decay b) Obesity, rapid heart rate and lung disease c) Obesity, slow heart rates and hypertension d) Previous MI, hypotension and diabetes Question 40 Of the following, which is the best answer when asked for an advantage of echocardiogram exercise testing over thallium stress testing? Question 40 options: a) Results are available more quickly b) Does not depend on operator experience c) Costs are the same d) Doesn’t matter because there are no advantages Question 41 Your preceptor decides to add Doppler Flow studies to the echocardiogram exercise test for a patient with a recent history of a holistic murmur best auscultated at the left steral boarder. The patient has no history of cardiac surgeries. He asks you what might be the main advantages of adding Doppler Flow for this particular patient. You know from your readings that there are several reasons to add Doppler Flow and below are listed more than one correct reason. Your best response for this specific case, however, would be that Doppler Flow studies would be of what additive value during the echocardiogram study? Question 41 options: a) Gives better screen shots of wall abnormalities b) Provides assessment of prosthetic valve function c) Detect and evaluate blood shunting from a septal defect d) No advantage is seen for this patient Question 42 What is the leading cause of death for women in the United States? Question 42 options: a) Breast cancer b) Lung cancer c) Heart disease d) Complications of childbirth Question 43 A 47-year old female with general complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath shows up in your clinic as a referral from another nurse practitioner. Several blood tests and chest x-rays have been completed without any diagnosis or outstanding abnormalities. You decide to order an ETT despite the fact that the recent ECG does not show any abnormalities. From the answers below, which would be the best answer to support your decision? Question 43 options: a) Women present with the same pattern of CAD as do males b) CAD in women is under diagnosed c) You are out of other options d) To please the patient Question 44 The diagnostic accuracy of stress testing is decreased among women compared to men for what reasons? Question 44 options: a) Women usually have single vessel or non-obstructive disease b) Women typically have multiple vessel disease c) Women having thinner ventricular and septal muscles d) Women cannot exercise as vigorously as men Question 45 You are counseling a patient diagnosed with stress-induced ischemia. You base your discussion on your knowledge that stress-induced ischemia is thought to be caused by what phenomena? Question 45 options: a) Heart muscle dysfunction b) Diet and exercise c) Endothelial dysfunction of the microvascular d) Too many carbonated drinks Question 46 In women, you need to know the limitations of certain tests for CAD. For example, single-photon emissions CT imaging, while an acceptable test for most men and some women, is technically limited in women for two reasons. From the following, choose the best possible answer. Question 46 options: a) Multiple vessel disease and fat deposits b) Smoking rates and lack of uptake of photons c) Breasts and smaller coronary arteries d) Breasts and fat deposits in abdomen Question 47 A 35 year old female arrives at your clinic. She has had diabetes and peripheral artery disease for the past 5 years. You decide to obtain an ETT. The insurance company argues that this is inappropriate. You justify the ETT because you are planning secondary strategies to prevent future heart disease. Where could one find the supporting data for these guidelines? Question 47 options: a) Framingham risk score b) Medicare guidelines c) Medicaid guidelines d) Do not exist Question 48 A 55-year old man is referred to your clinic. He has been sedentary all of his life, is gaining weight and wishes to get into better physical shape. He has never had any chest pain or shortness of breath when walking or climbing a flight of stairs. Before recommending a vigorous exercise routine for this patient, you order what test? Question 48 options: a) CBC b) Thyroid levels c) Stool samples d) ETT Question 49 All patients, even is asymptomatic, require risk stratification according to the Farmingham risk score. At present, ACC/AHA guidelines, however, do not normally support stress tests for asymptomatic patients without addiitonal justification. From the list below, what could be used to justify a ETT in an asymptomatic patient? Question 49 options: a) Sedentary and wishes to begin aggressive exercise b) A member of congress c) Developmentally challenged d) A smoker of 3 weeks Question 50 For women with known CAD and diabetes, which is most appropriate to assess CAD risk? Question 50 options: a) ETT b) Coronary catheterization c) ETT with imaging d) Coronary bypass surgery Question 51 The most important partnership in a primary setting is between what two partners? Question 51 options: a) Practicing physicians b) Insurance and office manager c) Patient and provider d) Insurance and patient Question 52 The goal of self-management is to specifically do what? Question 52 options: a) Engage patients in their own care b) Engage providers in patient care c) Engage government in greater involvement in patient care d) Engage insurance providers in patient care Question 53 When there is a consequential loss of structural integrity of the abdominal aorta, the resulting issue is what condition? Question 53 options: a) Bloated stomach b) Bleeding ulcers c) Abdominal aortic aneurysm d) Kidney failure Question 54 Aortic aneurysms are described based on their shape. Aneurysms may be fusiform or saccular. When an aneurysm forms as a weakness or bleb on one side of the aorta, it is described as what form of aneurysm? Question 54 options: a) Fusiform b) Saccular Question 55 You receive a report back on the suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm for your patient. It confirms your suspicion of AAA. The report describes the aneurysm as a symmetric weakness of the entire circumference of the aorta. You know that this form of aneurysm is referred to as what kind of aneurysm? Question 55 options: a) Fusiform aneurysm b) Thoracic aneurysm c) Saccular aneurysm d) Budging sac aneurysm Question 56 What is one of the common causes of a Saccular Abdominal Aneurysm? Question 56 options: a) Drugs: illicit and prescribed b) Poor kidney functioning c) Trauma d) Age Question 57 Your patient has an AAA that you have been watching. It is now progressed to greater than 4.0cm in size. What action should you consider at this juncture in patient management of this condition? Question 57 options: a) Surgical consult with vascular surgeon b) Diet changes c) Prescription for ulcers d) Diuretic to lower fluid pressure Question 58 Overall, the risk for abdominal aortic aneurysm is greater among: Question 58 options: a) Women b) Asian Americans c) African Americans d) Whites Question 59 A 65-year old white male arrives in your clinic with general complaints of slight abdominal discomfort. He has a known history of smoking two packs per day for 40 years and hypertension. He also has COPD and has been treated numerous times with oral steroids. You consider several optional diagnoses. Of the ones listed below, which should be included as a potential top suspect in your choice of diagnosis? Question 59 options: a) Abdominal aortic aneurysm b) Meglacolon c) Chronic bowel obstruction d) Appendicitis Question 60 Abdominal aortic aneurysms are often asymptomatic. What percent of AAA’s are discovered in asymptomatic patients? Question 60 options: a) 20% b) 10% c) 40% d) 75% Question 61 Your patient asks you what causes a rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. You know the answer is most often: Question 61 options: a) Trauma to the abdomen is most often the cause b) Ulcerations that “chew” through the abdominal wall c) Wall tension exceeds tensile strength of wall collagen d) Work or marital stress Question 62 At what point is elective repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) for a healthy patient considered appropriate? Question 62 options: a) 1-2 cm diameter b) 10-15 cm diameter c) 5-6 cm diameter d) Baseball size Question 63 You have confirmed that your patient does indeed have an abdominal aortic aneurysm. In teaching your patient about symptoms to report immediately to the vascular surgeon, you instruct the patient to report which of the following? Question 63 options: a) Back pain or flank pain b) Headaches c) Visual disturbances d) Newly diagnosed diabetes Question 64 In a person with diagnosed abdominal aortic aneurysm, which symptoms might indicate impending rupture? Question 64 options: a) Headaches with pain radiating to the eyes b) Visual disturbances with halos around all lights c) New chronic illness diagnosis such as diabetes d) A deep boring pain that radiates to the legs Question 65 More than half of all cardiac arrhythmias involve the atria. Question 65 options: a) True b) False Question 66 At what age is atria fibrillation most common? Question 66 options: a) 60 years or older b) 45 years c) 30 years d) In childhood Question 67 What are the most common mechanisms to produce cardiac arrhythmias? Question 67 options: a) Enhanced automaticity, triggered activity or reentry b) Reentry, electrical dysfunction or activity c) Stress, hard work or swimming d) Decreased automaticity, triggered activity or reentry Question 68 Automaticity is a property common to all cardiac cells. Is this statement true or false? Question 68 options: a) True b) False Question 69 What are the most common symptoms caused by tachyarrhythmias? Question 69 options: a) Sweating b) Headaches c) Palpitations d) Thirst Question 70 Tachyarrhythmias cause a drop in commonly blood pressure, cardiac output, syncope, shortness of breath, and chest pain. What phenomenon most often occurs during these arrhythmias to cause these symptoms? Question 70 options: a) Shortened diastole b) Lengthened diastole c) Shortened systole d) Lengthened systole Question 71 Your patient was recently treated for tachycardia and now has a normalized heart rate and rhythm. On examination, you notice a new S3 heart sound. What condition are you concerned with at this time based on this new finding? Question 71 options: a) Myocardial infarction occurring b) Impending heart failure c) Heart rupture d) Hypertension Question 72 Your patient is newly diagnosed with persistent Atria Fibrillation. You consider electrocardioversion. Before undergoing this procedure you should order the following examination to assess thrombus risk. Question 72 options: a) Ultrasound of chest b) X-Ray of chest c) Tranesophageal echocardiography d) CT Scan Question 73 Your patient presents with tachycardia. The QRS is measured at 0.10 seconds. Which of the following tachycardias would be an appropriate conclusion based on this information alone? Question 73 options: a) Premature junctional contractions b) Ventricular tachycardias c) Atria fibrillation d) Ventricular fibrillation Question 74 Your patient presents with an atria arrhythmia with defined P waves. She is in stable condition and her hemodymics are stable. What would you suggest as a first line therapy in this case? Question 74 options: a) Beta Blockers b) Cardioversion c) Synchronized cardioversion d) Ablation therapy Question 75 What are the two types of bradycardia recognized by the American Heart Association? Question 75 options: a) Refractory and non-refractory b) Relative and absolute c) Absolute and pending d) Relative and dynamic Question 76 What criterion does the American Heart Association use to classify relative bradycardia? Question 76 options: a) Heart rate below 60 that does not support adequate cardiac output b) Heart rate above 60 that does not support adequate cardiac output c) Heart rate above 60 beats per minute d) Heart rate below 60 beats per minute Question 77 Your 56-year old patient presents with bradycardia with a rate of 55 and first degree AV block. The patient is hemodynamically stable and is not experiencing any syncope or chest pain. History includes previous myocardial infarction. Home medications include beta blockers, daily aspirin. Lab work is non-significant for electrolyte imbalance. You decided to treat this patient for the arrhythmia to prevent future destabilization. From the choices below, which might be the appropriate first measure to consider? Question 77 options: a) Consult cardiologist immediately for guidance b) Atropine injections c) Add digitalis to control the heart rate d) Discontinue Beta Blocker and replace with another therapy if necessary Question 78 Any patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia should be referred to a cardiologist for management. Is this statement true or false? Question 78 options: a) True b) False Question 79 The majority of all strokes are non-ischemic. Is this statement true or false? Question 79 options: a) True b) False Question 80 Heart failure is a complex syndrome characterized by the heart’s failure to do which of the following? Question 80 options: a) Meet the body’s metabolic needs b) Pump sufficient blood to the brain c) Control for blood pressure d) Supply sufficient blood to the kidneys Question 81 What are the two main types of heart failure? Question 81 options: a) Left sided and main b) End diastolic and pressure related c) Hopeless and severe d) Systolic and diastolic Question 82 What is the most common cause of systolic heart failure? Question 82 options: a) Diabetes b) Atria arrhythmias c) CAD d) PAD Question 83 Your patient of 58 years of age has chronic hypertension. You follow the guidelines for management as described by the American Heart Association and now have your patient fully medicated and dosed with three separate antihypertensive medications without control of the blood pressure. What should be your next step in the management of this patient? Question 83 options: a) Physician consult b) Add a fourth agent c) Increase exercise recommendations to include marathons d) Continue to observe for an additional three months without any changes Question 84 You see a 60-year old African American male in your clinic with a recent diagnosis of hypertension. He asks you what he should restrict in his diet, and is particularly interested in limiting his sodium intake. What amount of sodium intake would you recommend on a daily basis for this patient? Question 84 options: a) 2.3 g/day b) 3.0 g/day c) No added table salt d) 1.5 g/day Question 85 When a murmur is first heard, it is important to determine if it is due to a pathological condition or benign. For an experienced practitioner, it is always easy to determine the cause of a murmur merely by listening to the sound. Is this statement true or false? Question 85 options: a) True b) False Question 86 You tell a patient that he has a murmur. He says he has been told this before, but wonders what causes the unique sounds of a murmur. Which of the following would be your best option? Question 86 options: a) Turbulent flow of blood b) High pressures caused from HTN c) Almost always from a sclerotic valve d) There is no reason, it just happens Question 87 (2.751 points) You see a 75-year old female in your clinic today complaining of urinary incontinence. She is otherwise healthy based upon her last visit. She states that her mother told her this would happen someday because it happens to every woman at some age. What would you tell this patient? Question 87 options: a) This happens to all women as they age b) No need to worry. This is normal. Your mother was correct. c) This is not an expected condition related to aging. d) This happens to men as well and most women before your age. Question 88 Your patient presents complaining of incontinence of urine. He states that this happens every time soon after he urinates. What type of incontinence is your patient experiencing? Question 88 options: a) Stress incontinence b) Urge incontinence c) Overflow incontinence d) Mixed incontinence Question 89 BPH is not a risk factor for Prostate cancer. Is this statement true or false? Question 89 options: a) True b) False Question 90 Your 60-year old male patient arrives for his appointment. He complains of general malaise and fever over the past several days with low back pain. He also states that he is getting up at night more often to urinate and never feels his bladder is completely empty. What differential diagnosis should you consider in this patient? Question 90 options: a) Acute bacterial prostatitis b) Acute viral prostatitis c) BPH only d) Stomach virus Question 91 You see a 35-year old male in the office for the first time. He states that he has been diagnosed with recurrent urinary tract infections. You know that urinary tract infections are uncommon among men less than 50 years of age and are considered a complicated infection in this age group. On physical examination, the patient is circumcised, and he denies homosexual activities. What other assessment or history question might be most pertinent in managing this patient? Question 91 options: a) Participation in heterosexual anal intercourse b) Cleanliness of anus after bowel movements c) Dietary habits d) Alcohol consumption Question 92 Your patient has uncomplicated pyelonephritis. In deciding your recommended treatment, you consider the most common pathogenic reason for this diagnosis. What pathogen accounts for the majority of pyelonephritis? Question 92 options: a) Chlamydia b) E. Coli c) Mycoplasma Hominis d) Gardnerella Vaginalis Question 93 There is a wide range of antibiotic agents that can be selected to treat a urinary tract infection. Unfortunately, there is often failure of treatment noticed. From the list below, which would be considered a common reason for treatment failure in UTI? Question 93 options: a) Inadequate treatment duration b) Selecting the appropriate antibiotic the first time c) Therapeutic dosing of the antibiotic d) Race or ethnicity of patient Question 94 What is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated community-acquired cystitis? Question 94 options: a) Penicillin b) Amoxicillin c) TMP-SMZ d) Any antibiotic will treat this diagnosis Question 95 For an uncomplicated UTI you choose to order TMP-SMZ for your patient. What is the recommended duration of therapy that you should considered? Question 95 options: a) 7-10 days b) 2 weeks c) 1 day d) 3 days Question 96 What sexually transmitted disease is most widespread in the USA today? Question 96 options: a) Syphilis b) Gonorrhea c) Chlamydia d) HIV/AIDS Question 97 Sexual partners of a patient with a diagnosed STI should always be examined and treated. Is this statement true or false? Question 97 options: a) True b) False Question 98 The reason for the increase in chlamydia diagnosis is thought to be related to what event? Question 98 options: a) Increased sexual activities among all populations b) Increased sexual activity among males c) Increased screening efforts d) Actual increases in remission of the infection between partners Question 99 Spread of genital herpes only occurs during the time period with active lesions. Is this statement true or false? Question 99 options: a) True b) False Question 100 Skin cancer is the most common malignant neoplasm in males in the US. What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men greater than 50 years of age? Question 100 options: a) Lung cancer b) Prostate cancer c) Lymphoma d) Lupus