HESI Pharmacology Practice Test Questions & Answers Graded A+ 2024

The nurse reviews the new prescription, phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), for a client with depression on the psychiatric unit. Which information is most important for the nurse to assess? A. Consumption of any alcohol or tyramine rich foods B. Reports of nausea or vomiting C. Therapeutic serum drug levels D. Blood pressure and pulse prior to taking each dose - A The nurse is administering haloperidol 0.5 mg IM PRN to a client for the first time. What side effects should the nurse assess thr client during the initial dose? A. Bradykinesia B. Dystonia C. Somatization D. Akathisia - B While reviewing the client's electronic medical record (EMR), the nurse assesses a client who is at risk for a possible interaction with an over-the-counter (OTC) decongestant. Which client health history should the nurse report to the health care provider concerning the OTC medication? (Select all that apply) A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) B. Closed angle glaucome C. Chronic hypertension D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Crohn's disease - B,C A client prescribed ipratropium reports nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia after using the inhaler. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Withhold the medication and report symptoms and vital signs to the healthcare provider B. Give PRN medication for nausea and vomiting and evaluate client in 30 minutes C. reassure client that the ipratropium given will alleviate the symptoms HESI Pharmacology Practice Test Questions & Answers Graded A+ 2024 D. Delay administration of ipratropium until the next maintenance medication is scheduled - A A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is experiencing profound weakness, blurry vision, and shooting pains in both legs. Which medication is considered the best course of treatment for the nurse to administer? A. High dose methylprednisolone intravenously B. Baclofen three times a day C. Broad spectrum antibiotic coverage orally D. Immunomodulatory drug therapy periodically - A The nurse administers 30 mL of lactulose for a client with stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment finding would indicate the medication is being therapeutic? A. A decrease in blood ammonia levels B. A softening in the stools C. An increase in glucose absorption D. A suppression of gut acidification - A The nurse is teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes about neutral protamine Hagedor (NPH) insulin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of how the medication works? A. It facilitates the transport of glucose into the cells B. It stimulates the function of beta cells in the pancreas C. It increases the intracellular receptor site sensitivity D. It delays the carbohydrate digestion and absorption - A The nurse should withhold which medication if a client reports nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea? A. Colchicine (Mitigare, Colcrys) B. Erythromycin (E-mycin) C. Naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn) D. Labetolol (Normodyne) - A A client newly prescribed esomeprazole for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) asks the nurse how the medication will help. Which is the best explanation to provide the client? A. It will promote rapid tissue healing B. It will increase gastric emptying C. It will improve esophageal peristalsis D. It will neutralize gastric secretions - A A nurse is providing medication education for a client prescribed a beta-blocking agent for treatment of glaucoma. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the mechanism of the medication? A. It inhibits the aqueous humor production B. It enhances the aqueous humor outflow C. It increases the intraocular pressure D. It prevents extraocular infection - A A nurse is planning a teaching session for a client newly prescribed a miotic drug for the treatment of glaucoma. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? A. The medication enhances the aqueous humor outflow B. The medication inhibits the aqueous humor production C. The medication dilates the pupils D. The medication prevents extraocular infection - A The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes a medication for an older adult client who is reporting insomnia, and the HCP instructs the client to return in two weeks. The nurse should question which prescription? A Zolpidem (Ambien) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime B. Eszopiclone (Lunesta) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime C. Temazepam (Restoril) 7.5 milligrams orally at bedtime D. Ramelteon (Rozerem) 8 milligrams orally at bedtime - B A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and receives a prescription for esomeprazole (Nexium) 20 mg capsule daily. When providing this client with discharge teaching, the nurse should include which instruction? A. Drink fluids between meals to relieve gastric distress B. Monitor for an increase in blood pressure during therapy C. Dissolve capsule contents in fruit juice for easier ingestion D. Take at same time each day one hour before eating a meal - D A client receives a new prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro), a synthetic quinolone. When teaching about this drug, which information in the client history requires special emphasis by the nurse? A. Snacks on dairy products such as yogurt or ice cream B. Previously had a mild allergic reaction to a cephalosporin C. Consumes alcoholic drinks occasionally on the weekends D. works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool - D The nurse administers the initial dose of a fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patch to a client. Which assessment finding should the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication? A. The absence of seizures B. The increase in lactation C. The presence of bowel sounds D. The number on the numeric pain scale - D Based on the blood culture and sensitivity results, the healthcare provider prescribes an IV aminoglycoside antibiotic and discontinues the current prescription for another broad spectrum antibiotic. The medication administration record indicates that the client received the broad spectrum antibiotic two hours ago. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Obtain peak and trough serum levels so the aminoglycoside antibiotic can be initiated B. Administer the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic as soon as possible C. Withhold antibiotic administration until the healthcare provider clarifies the prescriptions D. Schedule the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic for the following day - B The nurse is providing medication teaching for a client who recently received a prescription for clozapine (Clozaril). Which instruction should be included in this client's teaching plan? A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure B. Rise slowly from a lying position C. Do not eat any aged cheese D. Take as needed for anxiety - B A client receives a new prescription for nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching? A. Take the medication at least an hour before every meal B. Monitor your pulse for 60 seconds before administration C. Place under the tongue as needed every 5 minutes up to 3 times D. REsume normal activities after chest pain relief is obtained - C Which side effects should the nurse monitor for a client who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) following neurosurgery? (select all that apply) A. Mood swings B. Decreased appetite C. Increased weight gain D. Serum glucose level of 65 mg/dl E. Delayed incisional wound healing F. Serum hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dl - A,C,E,F A client prescribed sulfisoxazole for a urinary tract infection (UTI) reports nausea and gastric upset since starting the medication. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately? A. Rash B. Diarrhea C. Hematuria D. Muscle cramping - A What teaching should the nurse provide a client who has received a new prescription for sildenafil (Viagra)? (select all that apply) A. Frequent use can lead to the development of hypertension B. Most effective if taken after at least 6 hours of REM sleep C. Take within 30 to 60 minutes of sexual stimulation D. Report rebound priapism that occurs for 4 hours or more E. Can cause facial flushing and headache - C,D,E A client is administered an injection of medroxyprogesterone acetate (deop- provera). Which physical finding should the nurse instruct the client is an expected side effect of the medication? A. leg or calf pain B headaches or visual changes C. Vaginal bleeding or spotting D. Jaundice or angioedema - C A client who is receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondnsetron (zofran). Which side effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A. headache B. dry mouth C. impaired taste D. blurred vision - A A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease caused by Helicobacter pylori. Which medications should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe for the client? (select all that apply) A. Clarithromycin (Biaxin) B. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) C. Misoprostol (cytotec) D. Omeprazole (Prilosec) E. Metronidazole (Flagyl) F. Sucralfate (Carafate) - A,D,E The nurse is preparing to administer esomeprazole to a client for the management of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which finding in the client's history should the nurse hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider? A. Eats spicy food three times a week B. treatment for deep vein thrombosis C. drinks 2 alcoholic beverages on weekends D. Family history of diabetes mellitus - B Which findings should the nurse identify in an adult client with possible chronic salicylate intoxication? A. tinnitus and hearing loss B. Photosensitivity and nervousness C Acute gastrointestinal bleeding and anorexia D. Hyperventilation and central nervous system effects - A A client receives a prescription for tetracycline (sumycin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching? A. Take the medication with a glass of orange juice B. Avoid over-the-counter medications containing alcohol C. Avoid dairy products for 2 hours after taking the medication D. Do not use teeth whitening agents during the treatment regimen - C A client experiencing ventricular dysrhythmias is admitted to the intensive care unit status post a myocardial infarction. The nurse should anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe which medication? A. Diltiazem B. Bretylium C. Amiodarone D. Adenosine - C A client who is recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis receives a prescription for pyridostigmine (Mestinon), a cholinergic agent. Which information should the nurse instruct the client to implement when taking this medication? A. Always take with meals to avoid GI distress B. Plan the doses close together for maximal therapeutic effect C. Take the medication at least 30 minutes before eating meals D. Avoid dairy products two hours before and after taking medications - C A mother of a child prescribed methylphenidate hydrochloride for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) informs the school nurse she administers the medication at bedtime. Which instructions should the nurse recommend? A. continue administering the medication dose at bedtime B. Give the medication when the child arrives at school C. The medication should be taken with meals D. Administer the medication t least 6 hours before bedtime - D A client prescribed risperidone 10 mg/day for the past 3 months is being admitted to the hospital. Which physical assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? A anorexia B. Drowsiness and lethargy C. Tremors and muscle twitching D. Dry mouth, and constipation - C A client prescribed clindamycin hydrochloride intravenously asks the nurse why blood has to be drawn before the third dose and one hour after the completion of the administration of the medication. Which information should the nurse provide the client to answer the question? A. the onset action for the medication occurs very quickly B. A small margin exists between safe and toxic plasma levels C. Bioavailability is significantly reduced by the first-pass effect D. Standard dosage is needed for the medication to be effective - B A pediatric client diagnosed with partial seizures receives a prescription for topiramate. Which information should the nurse provide to the child's parents? A. do not crush the tablet prior to administration B. Give the medication with 8 oz of orange juice C. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight D. Administer the tablet an hour before meals - A A male client with meningitis is prescribed cefotaxime (Claforan) IV and asks the nurse why he cannot receive an oral drug, such as cefaclor (Ceclor) or cefadroxil (Duricef), that he has taken before infections. How should the nurse respond when considering the actions of cephalosporins? A. Cefazolin (Ancef) is another IV antibiotic that can be prescribed B. Cefaclor (Ceclor) is a good alternative to suggest to the healthcare provider C. Cefadroxil (Duricef) is usually prescribed when the IV is discontinued D. Cefotaxime (Claforan) provides therapeutic CNS concentrations - D A client experiencing pain from metastatic cancer is prescribed morphine. Which route of administration should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider prior to administering the medication? A. Oral B. Buccal C. Sublingual D. Intravenous - A Which statement by a client warrants further instruction by the nurse about the changing insulin needs of a diabetic client during pregnancy? A. "Eisodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months" B. "I will increase my insulin dosage by 5 units each month during the first trimester" C. "Insulin dosage will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters" D. "Breastfeeding will decrease my insulin needs to lower than my prepregnancy levels" - B A client with chronic gouty arthritis prescribed allopurinol is experiencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis. The healthcare provider prescribes concurrent low-dose colchicine. Which information should the nurse provide the client that best explains the action of the colchicine? A. It acts like aspirin to relieve pain B. It facilitates the excretion of uric acid C. It reduces the inflammation at the affected site D. It prevents the formation of uric acid crystals - C The healthcare provider prescribes oral antifungal therapy for a client with onychomycosis. Which information should the nurse provide the client? A. A single dose of the oral antifungal agent is usually sufficient to treat the infection B. The infection is difficult to eradicate and requires prolonged therapy for 3 to 6 months C. Complete eradication is important because of the risk of a systemic infection D. Prolonged therapy provides no benefit and increases the risk of adverse effcts - B A client receives a prescription for sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (septra) for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client? A. Ingest food prior to taking the antibiotic B. Drink at least 8 glasses for water a day C. take the medication with grapefruit juice D. avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight - B A client who is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus receives a prescription for vancomycin (Vancocin). Which assessment should the nurse perform to identify a potential adverse effect? A. Whisper test B. Romberg test C. Tactile discrimination D. Skin turgor - A A client with chronic pancreatitis receives a new prescription for pancrelipase (Pancrease). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in this client's teaching? A. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight B. Stay away from products containing alcohol C. Ingest 8 oz of grapefruit juice with the medication D. Take the medication when consuming food - D A client is beginning therapy with montelukast (Singulair) PO 10 mg once a day in the evening. The client asks the nurse, "When should I begin to feel better?" How should the nurse respond? A. Immediately B. Within 24 hours C. in about 12 hours D. 30 mins to 1 hr - B