NRS 3026 EXAM 2 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS COMPLETE A+ GRADED.
1. A pregnant patient's biophysical profile score is 8. a
The patient asks the nurse to explain the results. What
is the nurse's most appropriate response?
a. "The test results are within normal limits."
b. "Immediate birth by cesarean birth is being consid-
ered."
c. "Further testing will be performed to determine the
meaning of this score."
d. "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of
this profile and, within the next week, will inform you
of your options regarding birth."
2. Which analysis of maternal serum is the best predic- b
tor of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
a. Biopsychosocial profile
b. Multiple-marker screening
c. Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
d. Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal
serum
3. The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a a
newly pregnant patient. Which is an indication for
fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health
history?
a. Maternal diabetes
b. Weight gain of 25 lb
c. Maternal age older than 30 years
d. Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth
4. What point in the pregnancy is the most accurate time a
to determine gestation age through ultrasound?
a. First trimester
b. Second trimester
c. Third trimester
d. No difference
, NRS 3026 EXAM 2 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS COMPLETE A+ GRADED.
5. The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetopro- c
tein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine
whether the fetus has which condition?
a. Hemophilia
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. A neural tube defect
d. Abnormal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
6. When is the earliest interval that chorionic villus sam- c
pling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 10 weeks
d. 14 weeks
7. Which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing is most im- a
portant to expectant parents?
a. Safety of the fetus
b. Duration of test
c. Cost of the procedure
d. Physical discomfort caused by the procedure
8. The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide b
which of the following?
a. Advice to the couple
b. Information about the tests
c. Reassurance about fetal safety
d. Assistance with decision making
9. Which factors should be considered a contraindica- d
tion for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
a. Rh-negative mother
b. Gestation less than 15 weeks
, NRS 3026 EXAM 2 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS COMPLETE A+ GRADED.
c. Maternal age younger than 35 years
d. Positive for group B Streptococcus
10. What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient d
hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnan-
cy-induced hypertension?
a. Determine if a metabolic disorder exists.
b. Identify the sex of the fetus.
c. Identify abnormal fetal cells.
d. Determine fetal lung maturity.
11. What does optimal nursing care after an amniocente- b
sis include?
a. Pushing fluids by mouth
b. Monitoring uterine activity
c. Placing the patient in a supine position for 2 hours
d. Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
12. What is the term for a nonstress test in which there c
are more fetal heart rates accelerations of 15 or more
beats. per minute (BPM) with fetal movement in a
20-minute period?
a. Postive
b. Negative
c. Reactive
d. Nonreactive
13. What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a d
contraction stress test (CST)?
a. Increase placental blood flow
b. Identify fetal acceleration patterns
c. Determine the degree of fetal activity
d. Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus
14. A biophysical profile is performed on a pregnant b
patient. The following assessments are noted: non-
, NRS 3026 EXAM 2 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS COMPLETE A+ GRADED.
reactive stress test (NST), three episodes of fetal
breathing movements (FBMs), limited gross move-
ments, opening and closing of hands indicating the
presence of fetal tone, and adequate amniotic fluid
index (AFI) meeting criteria. Which answer would be
the correct interpretation of this result?
a. A score of 10 would indicate that the results are
equivocal.
b. A score of 8 would indicate normal results.
c. A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be
considered as a possible treatment option.
d. A score of 9 would indicate reassurance.
15. In preparing a pregnant patient for a nonstress test c
(NST), which of the following should be included in
the plan of care?
a. Have the patient void prior to being placed on the
fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with
results.
b. Maintain NPO status prior to testing.
c. Position the patient for comfort, adjusting the toco-
transducer to locate fetal heart rate.
d. Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per
protocol for evaluation.
16. The results of a contraction stress test (CST) are b
positive. Which intervention is necessary based on
this test result?
a. Repeat the test in 1 week so that results can be
trended based on this baseline result.
b. Contact the health care provider to discuss birth
options for the patient.
c. Send the patient out for a meal and repeat the test
confirm that the results are valid.
d. Ask the patient to perform a fetal kick count assess-
ANSWERS COMPLETE A+ GRADED.
1. A pregnant patient's biophysical profile score is 8. a
The patient asks the nurse to explain the results. What
is the nurse's most appropriate response?
a. "The test results are within normal limits."
b. "Immediate birth by cesarean birth is being consid-
ered."
c. "Further testing will be performed to determine the
meaning of this score."
d. "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of
this profile and, within the next week, will inform you
of your options regarding birth."
2. Which analysis of maternal serum is the best predic- b
tor of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
a. Biopsychosocial profile
b. Multiple-marker screening
c. Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
d. Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal
serum
3. The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a a
newly pregnant patient. Which is an indication for
fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health
history?
a. Maternal diabetes
b. Weight gain of 25 lb
c. Maternal age older than 30 years
d. Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth
4. What point in the pregnancy is the most accurate time a
to determine gestation age through ultrasound?
a. First trimester
b. Second trimester
c. Third trimester
d. No difference
, NRS 3026 EXAM 2 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS COMPLETE A+ GRADED.
5. The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetopro- c
tein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine
whether the fetus has which condition?
a. Hemophilia
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. A neural tube defect
d. Abnormal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
6. When is the earliest interval that chorionic villus sam- c
pling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 10 weeks
d. 14 weeks
7. Which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing is most im- a
portant to expectant parents?
a. Safety of the fetus
b. Duration of test
c. Cost of the procedure
d. Physical discomfort caused by the procedure
8. The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide b
which of the following?
a. Advice to the couple
b. Information about the tests
c. Reassurance about fetal safety
d. Assistance with decision making
9. Which factors should be considered a contraindica- d
tion for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
a. Rh-negative mother
b. Gestation less than 15 weeks
, NRS 3026 EXAM 2 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS COMPLETE A+ GRADED.
c. Maternal age younger than 35 years
d. Positive for group B Streptococcus
10. What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient d
hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnan-
cy-induced hypertension?
a. Determine if a metabolic disorder exists.
b. Identify the sex of the fetus.
c. Identify abnormal fetal cells.
d. Determine fetal lung maturity.
11. What does optimal nursing care after an amniocente- b
sis include?
a. Pushing fluids by mouth
b. Monitoring uterine activity
c. Placing the patient in a supine position for 2 hours
d. Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
12. What is the term for a nonstress test in which there c
are more fetal heart rates accelerations of 15 or more
beats. per minute (BPM) with fetal movement in a
20-minute period?
a. Postive
b. Negative
c. Reactive
d. Nonreactive
13. What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a d
contraction stress test (CST)?
a. Increase placental blood flow
b. Identify fetal acceleration patterns
c. Determine the degree of fetal activity
d. Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus
14. A biophysical profile is performed on a pregnant b
patient. The following assessments are noted: non-
, NRS 3026 EXAM 2 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS COMPLETE A+ GRADED.
reactive stress test (NST), three episodes of fetal
breathing movements (FBMs), limited gross move-
ments, opening and closing of hands indicating the
presence of fetal tone, and adequate amniotic fluid
index (AFI) meeting criteria. Which answer would be
the correct interpretation of this result?
a. A score of 10 would indicate that the results are
equivocal.
b. A score of 8 would indicate normal results.
c. A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be
considered as a possible treatment option.
d. A score of 9 would indicate reassurance.
15. In preparing a pregnant patient for a nonstress test c
(NST), which of the following should be included in
the plan of care?
a. Have the patient void prior to being placed on the
fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with
results.
b. Maintain NPO status prior to testing.
c. Position the patient for comfort, adjusting the toco-
transducer to locate fetal heart rate.
d. Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per
protocol for evaluation.
16. The results of a contraction stress test (CST) are b
positive. Which intervention is necessary based on
this test result?
a. Repeat the test in 1 week so that results can be
trended based on this baseline result.
b. Contact the health care provider to discuss birth
options for the patient.
c. Send the patient out for a meal and repeat the test
confirm that the results are valid.
d. Ask the patient to perform a fetal kick count assess-
