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Trauma fisdap 2024 (50 questions) with answers 100% correct

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Trauma fisdap 2024 (50 questions) with answers 100% correct

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Trauma Fisdap
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Trauma fisdap

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Trauma fisdap 2024 (50 questions) with answers 100%
correct
 Course
 Trauma fisdap

Question 1:

A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision presents with chest pain, difficulty
breathing, and jugular vein distention (JVD). Breath sounds are diminished on the right
side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Pulmonary contusion
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Hemothorax
D) Tension pneumothorax

Answer: D) Tension pneumothorax
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is suggested by difficulty breathing, JVD, and diminished
breath sounds. The pressure buildup in the pleural cavity compresses the lung, affecting
breathing and circulation.



Question 2:

A patient has fallen from a height and landed on their feet, now complaining of lower
back pain. Which injury should be highly suspected?

A) Femur fracture
B) Spinal compression fracture
C) Tibial fracture
D) Scapular fracture

Answer: B) Spinal compression fracture
Rationale: Landing on the feet after a high fall can transfer force up the body, leading to
spinal compression fractures, commonly in the lumbar spine.



Question 3:

In the case of a penetrating abdominal wound with visible organ evisceration, the best
initial management includes which of the following?

A) Push the organs back into the abdomen
B) Cover the organs with a dry, sterile dressing
C) Apply moist, sterile dressings and cover with an occlusive dressing
D) Apply direct pressure to stop bleeding

,Answer: C) Apply moist, sterile dressings and cover with an occlusive dressing
Rationale: Covering eviscerated organs with a moist, sterile dressing helps keep them moist
and protected from infection while preventing further injury.



Question 4:

A trauma patient exhibits periorbital ecchymosis (“raccoon eyes”) and clear fluid
draining from the nose. What type of injury is most likely?

A) Orbital fracture
B) Maxillary fracture
C) Basilar skull fracture
D) Nasal fracture

Answer: C) Basilar skull fracture
Rationale: “Raccoon eyes” and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the nose are classic
signs of a basilar skull fracture.



Question 5:

During an assessment of a trauma patient, you find paradoxical chest wall movement.
What is the most likely cause of this finding?

A) Hemothorax
B) Flail chest
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Simple pneumothorax

Answer: B) Flail chest
Rationale: Paradoxical chest wall movement (where a section of the chest moves opposite to
the rest during breathing) indicates a flail chest, often caused by multiple rib fractures.



Question 6:

A trauma patient with a penetrating chest wound has a sucking sound on inspiration.
Which intervention is most appropriate?

A) Cover the wound with a pressure dressing
B) Seal the wound with an occlusive dressing taped on three sides
C) Apply direct pressure to the wound
D) Insert a chest tube

,Answer: B) Seal the wound with an occlusive dressing taped on three sides
Rationale: A three-sided occlusive dressing allows trapped air to escape while preventing
additional air from entering, reducing the risk of a tension pneumothorax.



Question 7:

A patient with a severe head injury presents with bradycardia, hypertension, and
irregular respirations. What does this combination of signs indicate?

A) Neurogenic shock
B) Hypovolemic shock
C) Cushing's triad
D) Spinal cord injury

Answer: C) Cushing's triad
Rationale: Cushing's triad (bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations) is a sign of
increased intracranial pressure (ICP), often associated with severe head injuries.



Question 8:

A patient in a rollover accident complains of abdominal pain and left shoulder pain.
What is this referred shoulder pain called, and what injury does it indicate?

A) Kehr’s sign; indicates splenic injury
B) Murphy's sign; indicates liver injury
C) Cullen’s sign; indicates internal bleeding
D) McBurney’s sign; indicates appendicitis

Answer: A) Kehr’s sign; indicates splenic injury
Rationale: Kehr’s sign is left shoulder pain resulting from irritation of the diaphragm,
commonly due to a splenic injury.



Question 9:

When assessing a patient with a suspected pelvic fracture, which of the following is the
most appropriate management to reduce the risk of further injury?

A) Apply a pelvic binder
B) Elevate the legs
C) Place the patient on a backboard
D) Perform a physical exam of the pelvis

, Answer: A) Apply a pelvic binder
Rationale: A pelvic binder stabilizes the pelvis and helps prevent excessive bleeding and
further injury, especially in high-energy trauma.



Question 10:

After an ejection from a vehicle, a patient presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and
unstable pelvis. What is the likely cause of these findings?

A) Spinal shock
B) Hypovolemic shock due to pelvic fracture
C) Neurogenic shock
D) Cardiogenic shock

Answer: B) Hypovolemic shock due to pelvic fracture
Rationale: Pelvic fractures can cause severe internal bleeding, leading to hypovolemic
shock, as evidenced by hypotension and tachycardia.

Question 11:

A trauma patient with blunt chest trauma presents with muffled heart sounds,
hypotension, and jugular vein distention (JVD). What is the likely diagnosis?

A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Flail chest

Answer: C) Cardiac tamponade
Rationale: The combination of JVD, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds is known as
Beck's triad, which is indicative of cardiac tamponade.



Question 12:

In a patient with suspected pelvic fracture, why should you avoid repeated
manipulation of the pelvis?

A) It may increase patient pain
B) It can worsen the fracture
C) It may lead to severe hemorrhage
D) It may cause paralysis

Answer: C) It may lead to severe hemorrhage
Rationale: Manipulating a fractured pelvis can disrupt clots and lead to massive bleeding, as
the pelvis is highly vascular.

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