complete solutions
Course
NURS 180
1. Question: A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate IV. Which of the
following side effects is most concerning?
A) Constipation
B) Nausea
C) Respiratory depression
D) Urinary retention
Answer: C) Respiratory depression
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening side effect of morphine,
especially in IV form due to its rapid onset. This opioid depresses the central nervous system,
which can significantly reduce respiratory rate. Monitoring respiratory function is essential.
2. Question: A 70-year-old patient is prescribed digoxin. Which lab result should the nurse
monitor to reduce the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
Answer: A) Potassium
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as low potassium levels can
enhance the drug’s effects on the heart, leading to dysrhythmias. It’s important to maintain
normal potassium levels to avoid these adverse effects.
3. Question: A patient has been prescribed a beta-blocker. Which instruction should the
nurse include?
A) "Take your pulse before each dose."
B) "You may discontinue this medication once you feel better."
C) "Increase your sodium intake to maintain blood pressure."
D) "This medication will make you urinate more frequently."
Answer: A) "Take your pulse before each dose."
Rationale: Beta-blockers can decrease heart rate; therefore, patients should monitor their
pulse. If it is too low (typically below 60 bpm), they should consult their healthcare provider
before taking their dose.
,4. Question: A patient with hypertension is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which adverse
effect should the nurse monitor for?
A) Dry cough
B) Constipation
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Increased appetite
Answer: A) Dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril, commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to
increased bradykinin. If it becomes bothersome, the patient should discuss alternative
medications with their provider.
5. Question: When administering a medication, the nurse follows the "five rights." Which of
the following is NOT one of the five rights?
A) Right patient
B) Right dose
C) Right reason
D) Right route
Answer: C) Right reason
Rationale: The "five rights" include the right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and
right time. Although "right reason" is important in ensuring proper administration, it’s not
part of the original "five rights."
6. Question: A patient is receiving vancomycin IV. The nurse notices redness and itching on
the patient’s upper body. Which adverse reaction should the nurse suspect?
A) Red man syndrome
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) Angioedema
Answer: A) Red man syndrome
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a reaction to rapid vancomycin infusion, causing flushing,
redness, and itching. Slowing the infusion rate can help alleviate symptoms.
7. Question: The nurse is educating a patient about warfarin. Which food should the patient
be advised to limit?
A) Spinach
B) Apples
C) Carrots
, D) Oranges
Answer: A) Spinach
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can counteract the anticoagulant effects of
warfarin. Patients should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to avoid fluctuations in
medication efficacy.
8. Question: Which antibiotic is contraindicated for pregnant patients due to its teratogenic
effects?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Tetracycline
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Erythromycin
Answer: B) Tetracycline
Rationale: Tetracycline can cause discoloration of fetal teeth and impair bone growth. It is
contraindicated in pregnancy for these reasons.
9. Question: A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a patient with diabetes.
When should this insulin be administered in relation to meals?
A) 30 minutes before the meal
B) Immediately before the meal
C) 2 hours after the meal
D) At bedtime
Answer: B) Immediately before the meal
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered right before
meals to manage postprandial glucose levels effectively.
10. Question: A patient taking furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypokalemia
Answer: D) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, causing
hypokalemia. Patients on this medication are often monitored for low potassium and may
require supplementation.
, 11. Question: A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which finding
indicates the medication is effective?
A) Decreased edema
B) Decreased blood glucose
C) Increased respiratory rate
D) Increased heart rate
Answer: A) Decreased edema
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid retention, which helps decrease
edema in patients with heart failure.
12. Question: A nurse is reviewing medications with a patient taking lithium for bipolar
disorder. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) "Increase your salt intake."
B) "Avoid foods with potassium."
C) "Drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily."
D) "Take your dose before bed."
Answer: C) "Drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily."
Rationale: Adequate hydration is important with lithium to prevent toxicity. Dehydration can
increase lithium levels, leading to toxicity.
13. Question: Which medication is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Atropine
Answer: B) Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid toxicity,
including respiratory depression.
14. Question: A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a
common side effect of this medication?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tremors
C) Diarrhea
D) Constipation