Fisdap Cardiology Exam

Fisdap Cardiology Exam
 Course
 Fisdap Cardiology

Question 1:

What is the normal range for adult resting heart rate?

 A) 40-60 bpm
 B) 60-100 bpm
 C) 100-120 bpm
 D) 120-150 bpm

Answer: B) 60-100 bpm
Rationale: The normal resting heart rate for adults is typically between 60 and 100 beats per
minute (bpm). Rates outside this range may indicate bradycardia or tachycardia, depending
on whether they are below or above the normal range.



Question 2:

Which cardiac enzyme is primarily measured to diagnose myocardial infarction?

 A) Myoglobin
 B) Troponin
 C) Creatine kinase (CK)
 D) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

Answer: B) Troponin
Rationale: Troponin is a highly specific marker for myocardial injury. Elevated levels
indicate damage to the heart muscle, making it the primary enzyme used in diagnosing
myocardial infarction.



Question 3:

What does the term "ejection fraction" refer to in cardiology?

 A) The volume of blood in the heart at rest
 B) The percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
 C) The pressure in the arteries during heart contraction
 D) The heart rate at rest

Answer: B) The percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
Rationale: Ejection fraction (EF) measures how well the heart is pumping. It is calculated as
the percentage of blood that is ejected from the ventricles during each contraction relative to
the total volume of blood in the ventricles.

,Question 4:

What is the primary purpose of administering aspirin in a suspected myocardial
infarction?

 A) To reduce pain
 B) To thin the blood and prevent clot formation
 C) To increase heart rate
 D) To improve oxygen delivery to the heart

Answer: B) To thin the blood and prevent clot formation
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in
coronary arteries during a myocardial infarction, thus improving blood flow.



Question 5:

Which of the following arrhythmias is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm
and is associated with an increased risk of stroke?

 A) Ventricular fibrillation
 B) Atrial fibrillation
 C) Sinus bradycardia
 D) Supraventricular tachycardia

Answer: B) Atrial fibrillation
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation (AF) is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and is associated
with a significantly increased risk of thromboembolic events, including stroke, due to the
potential for blood clots to form in the atria.



Question 6:

What is the first-line treatment for a patient in stable atrial fibrillation with rapid
ventricular response?

 A) Synchronized cardioversion
 B) Intravenous adenosine
 C) Beta-blockers
 D) Calcium channel blockers

Answer: C) Beta-blockers
Rationale: Beta-blockers are commonly used to control the ventricular rate in patients with
stable atrial fibrillation and rapid ventricular response, improving symptoms and heart rate
control.

,Question 7:

Which heart sound is often associated with heart failure and can be indicative of volume
overload?

 A) S1
 B) S2
 C) S3
 D) S4

Answer: C) S3
Rationale: An S3 heart sound, often described as a "gallop," can indicate heart failure or
volume overload, particularly in older adults, as it represents rapid filling of the ventricles.



Question 8:

What is the primary function of the coronary arteries?

 A) To supply oxygenated blood to the lungs
 B) To supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle
 C) To return deoxygenated blood to the heart
 D) To transport nutrients to the tissues

Answer: B) To supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle
Rationale: The coronary arteries branch off from the aorta and provide the heart muscle
(myocardium) with oxygen-rich blood necessary for its function.



Question 9:

Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with a defibrillator?

 A) Atrial flutter
 B) Ventricular fibrillation
 C) Sinus tachycardia
 D) Asystole

Answer: B) Ventricular fibrillation
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a life-threatening arrhythmia that requires
immediate defibrillation to restore a normal rhythm and prevent cardiac arrest.



Question 10:

, What lifestyle modification is most effective for managing hypertension?

 A) Increasing sodium intake
 B) Reducing physical activity
 C) Losing weight and increasing physical activity
 D) Avoiding all forms of exercise

Answer: C) Losing weight and increasing physical activity
Rationale: Weight loss and regular physical activity are effective lifestyle modifications that
Question 11:

What is the primary effect of beta-adrenergic antagonists on the cardiovascular system?

 A) Increase heart rate
 B) Decrease myocardial contractility
 C) Decrease heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand
 D) Increase blood pressure

Answer: C) Decrease heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand
Rationale: Beta-blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility, leading to decreased
myocardial oxygen demand, which is beneficial in managing conditions like hypertension
and heart failure.



Question 12:

Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

 A) Hypokalemia
 B) Cough
 C) Bradycardia
 D) Tachycardia

Answer: B) Cough
Rationale: A persistent cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the
accumulation of bradykinin. This side effect may lead some patients to discontinue the
medication.



Question 13:

What is the main purpose of the PR interval on an ECG?

 A) To measure the time taken for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the
ventricles
 B) To measure ventricular depolarization time
 C) To assess heart rate