Peds Exam 2| 204 Questions| With Complete Solutions
Course
PEDS 204
1. What is the primary reason for performing a developmental assessment in
children?
A. To determine vaccination status
B. To identify delays or abnormalities in growth and development
C. To assess nutritional needs
D. To evaluate the child’s social skills
Answer: B. To identify delays or abnormalities in growth and development
Rationale: Developmental assessments are essential for identifying potential delays or
abnormalities, allowing for early intervention and support.
2. At what age should a child receive their first dose of the measles, mumps,
and rubella (MMR) vaccine?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 2 years
Answer: B. 12 months
Rationale: The MMR vaccine is typically administered between 12-15 months of age, with a
second dose recommended between 4-6 years.
3. Which of the following is a common sign of autism spectrum disorder
(ASD) in children?
A. Frequent tantrums
B. Difficulty with social interactions
C. Strong eye contact
D. Advanced language skills
Answer: B. Difficulty with social interactions
Rationale: Children with ASD often struggle with social interactions, which is a key
characteristic of the disorder.
4. What is the most appropriate initial management for a child presenting
with mild dehydration due to diarrhea?
, A. Intravenous fluids
B. Oral rehydration solution
C. Clear liquids only
D. Solid food introduction
Answer: B. Oral rehydration solution
Rationale: Oral rehydration solutions are effective for managing mild dehydration in
children, replenishing lost fluids and electrolytes safely.
5. Which condition is characterized by the presence of a continuous high-
pitched wheezing sound during expiration?
A. Asthma
B. Croup
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Pneumonia
Answer: A. Asthma
Rationale: Wheezing is a hallmark sign of asthma, indicating narrowed airways that lead to
difficulty in breathing.
6. What is the recommended position for an infant during sleep to reduce the
risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
A. On their stomach
B. On their side
C. On their back
D. In a car seat
Answer: C. On their back
Rationale: Infants should always be placed on their back to sleep, as this position
significantly reduces the risk of SIDS.
7. Which of the following best describes the developmental stage of a 4-year-
old child?
A. Primarily focused on solitary play
B. Engaging in cooperative play with peers
C. Preferring adult companionship over peers
D. Demonstrating abstract thinking
,Answer: B. Engaging in cooperative play with peers
Rationale: At 4 years old, children typically begin to engage in cooperative play, forming
friendships and socializing with peers.
8. What is a primary concern for a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis?
A. Normal growth and development
B. Respiratory complications and infections
C. Frequent vomiting
D. Sudden weight gain
Answer: B. Respiratory complications and infections
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis leads to thick, sticky mucus that can obstruct airways, making
respiratory infections a significant concern.
9. At what age do most children start to show interest in potty training?
A. 12-18 months
B. 18-24 months
C. 2-3 years
D. 3-4 years
Answer: C. 2-3 years
Rationale: Many children begin to show readiness for potty training between 2-3 years of
age, although individual readiness can vary.
10. What is the primary treatment for a child with acute otitis media?
A. Immediate antibiotic therapy
B. Observation and symptomatic relief
C. Surgical intervention
D. Steroid therapy
Answer: B. Observation and symptomatic relief
Rationale: Many cases of acute otitis media resolve without antibiotics, so observation and
management of symptoms are often appropriate, especially in mild cases.
11. Which of the following is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in
children?
A. Bacterial infections
, B. Viral infections
C. Parasitic infections
D. Food allergies
Answer: B. Viral infections
Rationale: Viral infections, particularly rotavirus, are the most common cause of
gastroenteritis in children.
12. What is a common long-term complication of untreated pediatric obesity?
A. Decreased appetite
B. Hyperactivity
C. Type 2 diabetes
D. Increased growth velocity
Answer: C. Type 2 diabetes
Rationale: Untreated pediatric obesity can lead to insulin resistance and eventually type 2
diabetes, along with other metabolic disorders.
13. At what age should a child typically be able to say simple sentences?
A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
Answer: C. 2 years
Rationale: By age 2, children usually start to form simple two- to three-word sentences as
their language skills develop.
14. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment for a child with
suspected meningitis?
A. Respiratory status
B. Neurological status
C. Cardiac rhythm
D. Gastrointestinal symptoms
Answer: B. Neurological status
Rationale: Neurological assessment is critical in suspected meningitis to identify signs such
as altered consciousness or seizures.
Course
PEDS 204
1. What is the primary reason for performing a developmental assessment in
children?
A. To determine vaccination status
B. To identify delays or abnormalities in growth and development
C. To assess nutritional needs
D. To evaluate the child’s social skills
Answer: B. To identify delays or abnormalities in growth and development
Rationale: Developmental assessments are essential for identifying potential delays or
abnormalities, allowing for early intervention and support.
2. At what age should a child receive their first dose of the measles, mumps,
and rubella (MMR) vaccine?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 2 years
Answer: B. 12 months
Rationale: The MMR vaccine is typically administered between 12-15 months of age, with a
second dose recommended between 4-6 years.
3. Which of the following is a common sign of autism spectrum disorder
(ASD) in children?
A. Frequent tantrums
B. Difficulty with social interactions
C. Strong eye contact
D. Advanced language skills
Answer: B. Difficulty with social interactions
Rationale: Children with ASD often struggle with social interactions, which is a key
characteristic of the disorder.
4. What is the most appropriate initial management for a child presenting
with mild dehydration due to diarrhea?
, A. Intravenous fluids
B. Oral rehydration solution
C. Clear liquids only
D. Solid food introduction
Answer: B. Oral rehydration solution
Rationale: Oral rehydration solutions are effective for managing mild dehydration in
children, replenishing lost fluids and electrolytes safely.
5. Which condition is characterized by the presence of a continuous high-
pitched wheezing sound during expiration?
A. Asthma
B. Croup
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Pneumonia
Answer: A. Asthma
Rationale: Wheezing is a hallmark sign of asthma, indicating narrowed airways that lead to
difficulty in breathing.
6. What is the recommended position for an infant during sleep to reduce the
risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
A. On their stomach
B. On their side
C. On their back
D. In a car seat
Answer: C. On their back
Rationale: Infants should always be placed on their back to sleep, as this position
significantly reduces the risk of SIDS.
7. Which of the following best describes the developmental stage of a 4-year-
old child?
A. Primarily focused on solitary play
B. Engaging in cooperative play with peers
C. Preferring adult companionship over peers
D. Demonstrating abstract thinking
,Answer: B. Engaging in cooperative play with peers
Rationale: At 4 years old, children typically begin to engage in cooperative play, forming
friendships and socializing with peers.
8. What is a primary concern for a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis?
A. Normal growth and development
B. Respiratory complications and infections
C. Frequent vomiting
D. Sudden weight gain
Answer: B. Respiratory complications and infections
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis leads to thick, sticky mucus that can obstruct airways, making
respiratory infections a significant concern.
9. At what age do most children start to show interest in potty training?
A. 12-18 months
B. 18-24 months
C. 2-3 years
D. 3-4 years
Answer: C. 2-3 years
Rationale: Many children begin to show readiness for potty training between 2-3 years of
age, although individual readiness can vary.
10. What is the primary treatment for a child with acute otitis media?
A. Immediate antibiotic therapy
B. Observation and symptomatic relief
C. Surgical intervention
D. Steroid therapy
Answer: B. Observation and symptomatic relief
Rationale: Many cases of acute otitis media resolve without antibiotics, so observation and
management of symptoms are often appropriate, especially in mild cases.
11. Which of the following is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in
children?
A. Bacterial infections
, B. Viral infections
C. Parasitic infections
D. Food allergies
Answer: B. Viral infections
Rationale: Viral infections, particularly rotavirus, are the most common cause of
gastroenteritis in children.
12. What is a common long-term complication of untreated pediatric obesity?
A. Decreased appetite
B. Hyperactivity
C. Type 2 diabetes
D. Increased growth velocity
Answer: C. Type 2 diabetes
Rationale: Untreated pediatric obesity can lead to insulin resistance and eventually type 2
diabetes, along with other metabolic disorders.
13. At what age should a child typically be able to say simple sentences?
A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
Answer: C. 2 years
Rationale: By age 2, children usually start to form simple two- to three-word sentences as
their language skills develop.
14. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment for a child with
suspected meningitis?
A. Respiratory status
B. Neurological status
C. Cardiac rhythm
D. Gastrointestinal symptoms
Answer: B. Neurological status
Rationale: Neurological assessment is critical in suspected meningitis to identify signs such
as altered consciousness or seizures.
